HPRCA Radiographer (Job Trainee) Examination 2026 — Post Code 26061

Advertisement 15/2026 (3 November 2026) | 43 vacancies | Himachal Pradesh Rajya Chayan Aayog (HPRCA)

This examination is for one common Radiographer post code 26061 serving two recruiting departments: 19 posts in Health & Family Welfare and 24 posts in Medical Education & Research. Both departments are listed under the same Radiographer (Job Trainee) recruitment. The selection test assesses knowledge at the level of the prescribed radiography/imaging qualification and the general areas specified in the advertisement. It is not a postgraduate radiology entrance test or a separate examination for each department.

One Radiographer examination for both health departments

Candidates compete under one Post Code — 26061, covering 43 posts in two Himachal Pradesh departments. The written screening is common to this post code; the advertised notice does not establish a separate Radiographer paper for each department. Any department preference and actual allotment are considered under the applicable merit, category, vacancy and verification rules after selection.

🥧 Advertised Radiographer vacancies by department

The two departmental figures add to 43, not 86. Vacancies indicate the number of posts under the common recruitment; they are not a promise that an applicant can choose a department regardless of merit, category or availability. The recruiting departments and appointment formalities may differ, although the advertised post code and written test are common.

1. The examination pattern actually announced

What the 90-minute limit means: Dividing 90 minutes by 120 questions leaves an average of 45 seconds per question. This is a time-management calculation, not a per-question timer prescribed by HPRCA. A candidate can answer familiar items quickly and reserve time for technical calculations or longer reasoning questions; the final exam instructions take priority over any practice strategy.

2. The officially notified syllabus: know exactly what has and has not been fixed

The vacancy notification identifies these examination areas, without giving each area a chapter-wise mark allotment:

HPRCA refers candidates to the detailed syllabus available through its official Syllabus/Downloads facility. Until a post-code-specific syllabus is confirmed, do not rely on claims such as “70 radiography questions plus 50 general questions,” a particular imaging-topic weightage, a promised bilingual paper, or a guessed negative-marking rule. Those details are not specified in Advertisement 15/2026.

3. Degree-level Radiographer preparation: a practical topic map

Important distinction: The subjects below are an educational revision map, a topic-wise preparation guide rather than a chapter-wise mark allotment issued by HPRCA. The map follows the type of B.Sc. radiodiagnosis/radiotherapy coursework published by Atal Medical and Research University, Himachal Pradesh, and the professional degree disciplines accepted for this recruitment. The University's syllabus is an academic reference; the Commission's subsequently issued Radiographer syllabus, if any, must be followed for the actual examination.

3.1 Human anatomy and physiology for image interpretation

Review anatomical orientation, planes and movements, bones, joints and major landmarks; skull, facial bones and paranasal sinuses; vertebral column; shoulder, upper limb, pelvis and lower limb. Revise thoracic structures and the respiratory system; cardiovascular anatomy; abdominal and urinary organs; endocrine and nervous-system fundamentals; and cross-sectional anatomy encountered in medical imaging. For applied revision, practise relating an anatomical structure to the required projection or imaging region rather than memorising names without their location.

3.2 Basic radiation physics and X-ray production

Revise electromagnetic radiation, atomic structure, ionisation and radioactivity, half-life, X-ray tube construction, focal spot, anode/cathode, generators and exposure timers. Understand kVp, mA and exposure time as separate controls, rather than treating them as interchangeable. Study characteristic radiation, bremsstrahlung, the photoelectric effect, Compton scattering, attenuation and scatter; the meaning of half-value layer and how filtration/collimation influence the beam. Also revise elementary electricity, magnetism, transformers and common numerical relationships such as the inverse-square law.

3.3 Radiographic positioning and projections

Revise AP, PA, lateral and oblique projections and the distinction between patient position and X-ray beam direction. Practise the anatomical landmarks, positioning decisions and image-quality aims for chest, abdomen/KUB, cervical/thoracic/lumbar spine, pelvis/hip, shoulder, elbow, wrist, hand, knee, ankle and foot. Academic training also covers skull/sinus and selected dental views, mobile bedside radiography and operating-theatre imaging. Where clinically relevant, compare standard and supplemental views and the effect of movement, rotation and poor positioning on image interpretation.

3.4 X-ray equipment, image formation and quality control

Review fixed/rotating anode tubes, beam restriction and collimators, grids and grid cut-off, exposure control, intensifying screens and cassettes, film processing and darkroom fundamentals where included in the degree. Distinguish Computed Radiography (CR) from Digital Radiography (DR), and revise spatial resolution, contrast, noise, artefacts and the effect of exposure/positioning on image quality. Focus on what a radiographer can recognise, prevent or report when image quality is inadequate. HPRCA has not prescribed a separate number of questions for image-quality control in the advertisement.

3.5 CT, MRI and other imaging modalities

As an educational foundation, cover CT image acquisition, cross-sectional planes, detectors, basic reconstruction concepts, CT artefacts and dose-awareness; MRI principles, magnets, coils, elementary pulse-sequence ideas and key MRI safety differences; principles and applications of ultrasound, mammography, fluoroscopy, digital subtraction angiography and DEXA. Compare which imaging techniques use ionising radiation and which do not. These modalities are useful revision areas at Bachelor-degree level; the number or depth of questions from each is not specified in this advertisement.

3.6 Radiation protection, safety and patient care

Revise ALARA, the practical effects of time, distance and shielding, exposure of workers and the public, personal monitoring/dosimeters, radiation quantities/units and protection during radiography and CT. Understand safe working practices for pregnant patients and children at a conceptual level, along with patient identification, preparation, positioning, communication, privacy, infection control and handling a patient who needs assistance. Where your degree syllabus includes contrast studies, review indications, preparation and basic precautions rather than inventing separate eligibility requirements for this recruitment.

3.7 Radiotherapy components, if present in your qualifying degree

Accepted degree routes include titles involving Radiodiagnosis and Radiotherapy. Such graduates should revise the radiotherapy principles included in their actual course—for example treatment apparatus, simulation, planning, shielding, patient setup and radiation effects. This is relevant academic background, not an HPRCA declaration that therapeutic-radiology questions will carry a specified share of the 120-mark test.

How to use this topic map: Start with the exact transcript and syllabus of the qualifying B.Sc./Bachelor programme; make a short glossary of anatomy, equipment and radiation units; revise practical procedures and safety concepts; then practise degree-level objective questions. Check the official Radiographer post-code syllabus when available and update the study plan accordingly. A topic's appearance in university coursework must never be confused with an HPRCA-issued examination blueprint.

4. Preparing each general-knowledge component without invented section weights

• Himachal Pradesh GK: Revise the state's districts and physical geography, rivers, mountain regions, important wildlife and protected areas, major cultural and historical facts, administrative institutions and major public initiatives. These are sensible revision themes within HP GK, not an official district-wise topic list.
• Current Affairs: Keep a dated record of major national and Himachal Pradesh developments, public health and scientific developments, important institutions and notable government announcements. The notice does not prescribe a start month for current affairs.
• Everyday Science: Build clear conceptual understanding of basic biology, human health, physics, chemistry, measurements, electricity, light and common scientific processes at general level. Do not mistake this general area for the professional radiography syllabus.
• Logical Reasoning: Practise classification, series, analogy, simple coding/decoding, directions, relationships and clear interpretation of short logical statements as general practice examples; the notice does not separately enumerate these subtopics.
• Social Science: Revise basic history, geography, civics and economic/social concepts at ordinary school level. The notice does not allocate individual marks to these components.
• General English (Matric level): Revise core grammar, sentence correction, vocabulary, basic comprehension and correct use of common words.
• General Hindi (Matric level): Revise common व्याकरण, वाक्य-शुद्धि, शब्दार्थ, पर्यायवाची/विलोम and short passages at school level.

The professional material should come from recognised radiography/imaging degree content; general practice should remain proportionate to the officially confirmed syllabus rather than coaching-centre speculation. No official percentage split between technical and general questions has been published in this notice.

5. Minimum qualifying marks: calculate them correctly

The recruitment notification sets two explicit qualifying thresholds for the written screening examination:

📊 Minimum qualifying marks in the 120-mark test

Qualifying is not the same as selection. Scoring 54 or 48 (as applicable) meets the stated minimum, but competition, the number of available seats, category rules, merit order and eligibility verification can still affect the outcome. This notification does not publish a final selection cutoff or a separate EWS-specific qualifying percentage; do not invent one.

Can these minimum percentages be reduced?

Only under the stated condition: if the number of candidates attaining the prescribed minimum percentage is fewer than the advertised posts, HPRCA may, for reasons recorded in writing, relax the qualifying percentage by up to five percentage points. This would correspond mathematically to 40% = 48 marks for General and 35% = 42 marks for the named SC/ST/OBC/WFF groups if the full five-point relaxation were actually exercised. It is discretionary and has not been declared granted for this recruitment. Applicants should prepare for the original published minimum, not treat 42/120 as a universal pass mark.

6. If CBT is held in multiple shifts: Z-score normalisation

A multi-shift CBT can produce different score distributions because question sets and shifts vary. Advertisement 15/2026 says HPRCA will use the Z-score / Mean and Standard Deviation Method to normalise marks if a CBT takes place in more than one shift. The method evaluates a candidate's raw score relative to the average and spread of scores in that shift and scales it to the notified reference shift. In the published approach, the reference is the shift with the highest average score.

The formula described in the advertisement is:

Normalised score = (Reference-shift standard deviation / Candidate-shift standard deviation) × (Candidate raw score − Candidate-shift average) + Reference-shift average

The raw marks shown immediately after an exam need not equal the final normalised marks used for inter-shift comparison. HPRCA also describes balancing question subjects, difficulty and candidate distribution across shifts; an exam centre or time-slot preference is not an assured allotment. If the test is a single shift or is run in a different announced mode, do not automatically assume normalisation will be necessary. No shift count or exact examination dates are published in this notice.

7. Examination entry, candidate identity and permitted materials

An application and eligibility claim remain provisional until verified by the Commission. Before the examination, follow the actual admit-card instructions for the date, reporting time, photo-ID requirement, exam centre, permitted articles and any special assistance procedures. The vacancy notice explains that an admit card, when issued, is to be obtained through the candidate's official application details. It does not announce an admit-card release date for Post Code 26061.

If a candidate requires a scribe/writing assistance under the applicable PwBD provisions, the advertisement describes advance communication and verification requirements; do not wait until the examination gate to make the request. Misrepresentation, impersonation, unauthorised devices, prohibited communication and other examination misconduct can trigger disqualification under the published rules. It is safer to follow the actual examination-day notice rather than relying on generic lists of allowed stationery or electronic devices.

8. After the test: provisional answer key and objections

HPRCA's stated procedure provides for publication of a provisional answer key for the objective examination. Candidates can submit challenges within the seven-day opportunity specified in the advertisement; the objection fee is ₹200 per question. A challenge should identify the exact question and proposed answer and contain reliable supporting evidence where required by the published objection instructions. Expert consideration can lead to revision before the final key or result.

Do not confuse these with two different payments: the ₹800 application amount (₹100 examination fee plus ₹700 processing) is paid while applying, while ₹200 per challenged question is relevant only if an answer-key objection facility is opened after the examination. The advertisement does not give the date of the provisional key, a guaranteed result date, or an advance answer-key link for this post. No answer key, score sheet or result is announced for this recruitment in Advertisement 15/2026. Older Radiographer examination notices relate to different examinations and must not be mistaken for this one.

9. From test score to merit list, documents and department allocation

The examination is one stage of the recruitment. A candidate may meet the written minimum and still fail final eligibility verification or fall below the competitive merit position. The published recruitment process provides for consideration of examination performance, applicable category rules and later verification of originals before a recommendation is made.

Candidates called for verification should be prepared to substantiate 10+2 Science, one accepted B.Sc./Bachelor radiography or imaging degree, and registration with the HP Para Medical Council/State Allied Health Care Council, Himachal Pradesh. Keep matriculation/DOB evidence, HP schooling or qualifying bona-fide Himachali exemption, and reservation/relaxation certificates in the prescribed valid form where applicable. The Commission may require candidate preferences for department/district; when two departments share Post Code 26061, recommendation depends on merit, option and availability of vacancies, not simply on writing a preferred department.

A category-wise waiting panel, where prepared, works under the notification's conditions and period. It does not create additional jobs or promise appointment. The appointing authority ultimately handles the offer of appointment and subsequent service formalities. The vacancy notice does not publish a fixed interview date, an additional Radiographer practical test, a district-wise posting list or a joining timetable.

10. Study and self-check plan grounded in the advertised exam

First reading: Compare the officially notified general-topic scope with your qualifying degree syllabus. Record which degree units cover X-ray physics, patient positioning, radiation protection, equipment and image quality. Make a concise notebook of formulae, abbreviations, anatomical landmarks and imaging safety principles.

Second reading: Work through unit-level objective questions, checking why wrong options are wrong. Revise Matric-level English/Hindi separately and build regular short practice sets for HP GK, current affairs, science and reasoning. Keep any example practice allocation clearly separate from the Commission's not-yet-stated technical/general question split.

Timed practice: Use a full 120-question / 90-minute practice sitting to assess pacing, flag difficult questions and leave a final review interval. The 45-second average is a pacing benchmark, not an official rule. Do not assume there is no penalty for wrong answers: the vacancy notice leaves negative marking unspecified, so actual attempt strategy must follow the admit-card/test instructions when announced.

Final checks before the examination: Re-check the official exam date, centre, allowed identity documents, special-assistance rules, final syllabus and examination instructions. After the test, preserve the details needed to check the provisional key and decide quickly whether an evidence-backed objection is justified during the seven-day window.

11. Answers to questions candidates are likely to ask

Is this a separate exam for 19 Health & Family Welfare and 24 Medical Education posts? Both vacancy lines use Radiographer Post Code 26061 in Advertisement 15/2026. HPRCA has not announced two separate post-code examinations in this notice.

Are all 120 questions guaranteed to be technical radiography questions? No. The notice expressly includes general knowledge and other general subjects, without publishing their separate question counts.

Has HPRCA released a radiography chapter-wise marks table? Not within this 11-page notification. The academic study areas above are learning guidance, not an examination section-wise blueprint.

Does a 45% score guarantee selection? No. It is a qualifying threshold for the named general group, distinct from a competitive final merit position and the verification requirements.

Does every candidate get the five-point relaxation? No. The reduction is conditional, discretionary and requires reasons to be recorded by HPRCA.

Will there necessarily be negative marking? The advertisement does not specify a negative-marking rate, so neither a penalty nor a zero-penalty rule can be promised in advance.

Will everyone receive normalised marks? Normalisation is specified for a CBT held in multiple shifts; its applicability depends on actual examination arrangements.

Is the ₹200 answer-key fee an extra mandatory exam charge? No. It applies per disputed question when a provisional-key objection procedure is available, not automatically to every candidate.

Are the exam date, admit card, final answer key, result and document-verification dates fixed? None of these dates is fixed in Advertisement 15/2026. Follow the subsequent announcement for Radiographer Post Code 26061, not an older or unrelated exam.

What should be retained after applying? Keep your completed application, payment receipt, identity and qualification certificates, council-registration evidence and any valid category/domicile proofs. This becomes important if the examination score is followed by a document-verification call.

Official recruitment reference: Himachal Pradesh Rajya Chayan Aayog, Advertisement 15/2026, especially its selection/syllabus rules and examination, answer-key and normalisation provisions. For independent academic study, Atal Medical and Research University, Himachal Pradesh publishes a B.Sc. Medical Technology (Radiodiagnosis & Radiotherapy) curriculum; use it as a professional study reference, alongside HPRCA examination instructions.

12. Worked examples and calculations for a Radiographer candidate

These worked examples build the clinical-physics and examination arithmetic skills used in objective-question preparation. They are practice examples, not past HPRCA questions.

Example A — Calculate mAs without confusing it with kVp

At 200 mA for 0.10 second, tube current–time product = 200 × 0.10 = 20 mAs. Keeping the same mAs while changing the combination of current and time can influence motion blur and tube loading. kVp represents a different exposure factor associated with beam energy and penetration. For practice, try 160 mA for 0.125 second: 20 mAs.

Example B — Inverse-square relationship in a simplified geometry

Assuming a point source and unchanged exposure factors, doubling the source-to-measurement distance changes radiation intensity to one quarter of its original value: intensity varies inversely with the square of distance. At 1 m the illustrative relative intensity is 100 units; at 2 m it is 25 units. Real radiographic technique also depends on patient and detector geometry, so the simplified calculation is a physics exercise rather than a patient-specific exposure recommendation.

Example C — Reading the 120-mark passing thresholds

A candidate in the general category needs the announced 45% minimum, or 54/120. The specifically named SC/ST/OBC/WFF groups have an announced 40% minimum, or 48/120. Reaching a minimum does not guarantee shortlisting: merit ranking, vacancy limits and eligibility still matter. The permitted five-percentage-point relaxation is conditional and is not an automatic concession.

Example D — Normalisation as an illustration, not a published shift score

Consider a purely hypothetical candidate with a raw score of 70 in a shift whose mean is 60 and standard deviation is 10. If the reference shift's mean is 65 and its standard deviation is 12, the stated mean/standard-deviation relationship gives (70 − 60) × (12 ÷ 10) + 65 = 77. Actual scores can be determined only from the actual shift statistics released or applied by the Commission. This example is not a forecast or a cutoff.

Example E — Answer-key challenge cost

The advertised fee is ₹200 per question for an objection when the provisional-key window opens. A candidate contesting three separate questions would therefore calculate 3 × ₹200 = ₹600. This is separate from the ₹800 application fee. The date for the objection window is not announced with the vacancy advertisement.

13. Original practice questions — professional fundamentals

The following questions are newly prepared for revision. They are illustrative learning exercises, not an HPRCA model paper, previous-year paper or a prediction of the examination's question balance.

Q1. A tube current of 250 mA is used for 0.08 second. What is the mAs? (A) 3.125 (B) 20 (C) 200 (D) 3125
Answer: B — 20 mAs. Multiply mA by exposure time in seconds: 250 × 0.08 = 20. Do not mistake kVp for mAs.

Q2. If the source-to-point distance is doubled under an ideal inverse-square model, intensity becomes: (A) twice (B) half (C) one-quarter (D) unchanged.
Answer: C — one-quarter. The relative intensity becomes (1/2)² = 1/4.

Q3. Bremsstrahlung X-rays are produced principally when: (A) electrons are slowed near target nuclei (B) a magnetic field is switched off (C) ultrasound echoes return (D) radioactive nuclei undergo beta decay.
Answer: A. Deceleration and deflection of energetic electrons in the target generate a continuous X-ray spectrum.

Q4. Increasing tube potential (kVp), with other factors unchanged, chiefly changes: (A) detector brand (B) photon-energy spectrum and penetrability (C) table movement (D) patient identity.
Answer: B. kVp affects beam energy and penetration; mAs is more closely related to photon quantity.

Q5. The purpose of collimation in conventional radiography is to: (A) enlarge the exposed field unnecessarily (B) limit the irradiated area and reduce scatter (C) make MRI magnetic (D) substitute for patient identification.
Answer: B. A properly restricted field limits unnecessary irradiation and helps image contrast.

Q6. In a posterior–anterior (PA) chest projection, the beam travels: (A) anterior to posterior (B) posterior to anterior (C) left to right only (D) caudal to cranial only.
Answer: B. The projection is named for the direction of the X-ray beam.

Q7. Which device is characteristic of computed radiography (CR), rather than standard flat-panel digital radiography? (A) Photostimulable phosphor imaging plate (B) MRI RF coil (C) linear accelerator (D) ultrasound probe.
Answer: A. CR commonly records the latent image in a photostimulable phosphor plate read by a separate reader.

Q8. A radiographic grid is principally used to: (A) remove scattered X-rays reaching the receptor (B) eliminate the need for exposure planning (C) replace shielding in all situations (D) create ultrasound waves.
Answer: A. The grid preferentially absorbs angled scatter; it also imposes exposure and alignment considerations.

Q9. Which imaging method uses a strong static magnetic field and radiofrequency pulses rather than ionising X-rays? (A) CT (B) conventional radiography (C) MRI (D) fluoroscopy.
Answer: C. MRI works through magnetic resonance rather than an ionising X-ray beam.

Q10. Which method is based on rotating X-ray measurements reconstructed into cross-sectional images? (A) CT (B) simple B-mode ultrasound (C) optical photography (D) electrocardiography.
Answer: A. CT acquires projection data from multiple angles for reconstruction.

Q11. ALARA is best expanded as: (A) Always Limit All Radiological Activity (B) As Low As Reasonably Achievable (C) Automatic Low Angle Radiographic Alignment (D) Applied Linear Atomic Reaction Analysis.
Answer: B. It is the central optimisation principle in radiation protection.

Q12. The half-value layer describes the thickness of a specified material needed to: (A) double beam intensity (B) reduce beam intensity to half under defined conditions (C) double the focal spot (D) remove all MRI artefacts.
Answer: B. HVL is an attenuation/beam-quality concept.

Q13. Before an MRI examination, screening is particularly important for: (A) possible ferromagnetic objects and implant compatibility (B) replacing all patient history with guessing (C) prescribing medication (D) ignoring patient identity.
Answer: A. The magnetic and RF environment requires careful safety screening under local clinical protocols.

Q14. A repeated digital radiograph is found to have the wrong patient's identification. The first safety priority is to: (A) ignore the mismatch (B) treat correct patient identification as essential before further processing or release (C) assume the machine will correct names (D) delete audit trails.
Answer: B. Correct identification and escalation under institutional procedures protect patients.

Q15. Which factor is most directly associated with motion unsharpness during an exposure? (A) Patient motion during image acquisition (B) correct immobilisation (C) a properly selected projection (D) adequate identification.
Answer: A. Movement during acquisition may blur anatomical detail.

Q16. A radiographer is checking image quality. Which set contains plausible technical contributors to artefacts or reduced quality? (A) Positioning, motion, detector handling and exposure selection (B) Patient surname alone (C) Hospital cafeteria menu (D) The calendar month alone.
Answer: A. Quality control requires considering the acquisition process and equipment.

14. Original practice questions — published general subjects and exam arithmetic

Q17. Which is a Himachal Pradesh district? (A) Kangra (B) Hisar (C) Alwar (D) Patiala.
Answer: A. Kangra is a district of Himachal Pradesh; this is illustrative state-GK practice.

Q18. In the number series 3, 6, 12, 24, what follows? (A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 48 (D) 52.
Answer: C. Each term doubles.

Q19. Choose the correct sentence: (A) She have completed the course (B) She has completed the course (C) She completing the course (D) She has complete the course.
Answer: B. Singular third-person subject 'she' takes 'has'; the present perfect uses the past participle 'completed'.

Q20. 'विलोम' शब्द का अर्थ क्या है? (A) समान अर्थ (B) विपरीत अर्थ (C) संयुक्त वाक्य (D) संधि.
Answer: B. विलोम शब्द परस्पर विपरीत अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं।

Q21. A general-category candidate scores 53 out of 120. Has the candidate reached the normally advertised 45% minimum? (A) Yes (B) No (C) Only if a computer test occurs (D) Automatically selected.
Answer: B. The published general minimum is 54/120; any relaxation is conditional and must actually be exercised.

Q22. The normally advertised qualifying minimum for the named SC/ST/OBC/WFF groups is: (A) 36/120 (B) 42/120 (C) 48/120 (D) 72/120.
Answer: C. Forty per cent of 120 is 48.

Q23. A candidate wants to raise objections to two questions, at ₹200 per question. What is the stated objection-fee calculation? (A) ₹100 (B) ₹200 (C) ₹400 (D) ₹800.
Answer: C. Two independently challenged questions at ₹200 each total ₹400. The objection process opens only after a provisional key.

Q24. A 90-minute paper contains 120 questions. The arithmetic average available per question is: (A) 30 seconds (B) 45 seconds (C) 60 seconds (D) 90 seconds.
Answer: B. Ninety minutes = 5,400 seconds; 5,400 ÷ 120 = 45 seconds. Candidates can allocate time flexibly.

15. A disciplined revision plan for the 120-question test

Phase 1 — Secure professional fundamentals. Work through the recognised B.Sc./Bachelor radiography syllabus you studied, with emphasis on radiation physics, anatomy, positioning, equipment, CT/MRI concepts, protection and patient safety. Record calculations you repeatedly miss and the reason for each error.

Phase 2 — Add the advertised general areas. Revise Himachal Pradesh GK and current affairs with dates, then everyday science, social science, logical reasoning and Matric-level English/Hindi. Do not assume a fixed split between professional and general questions; it is not given in the vacancy notice.

Phase 3 — Measure timing and accuracy. Practise complete 120-question, 90-minute sessions. For each session, note accuracy by subject, skipped questions and careless errors. Review explanations instead of memorising option letters. Follow any final negative-marking instruction when the test details are announced; the recruitment advertisement itself does not state a deduction rate.

Phase 4 — Prepare for the examination and verification. Keep the completed application and proof of payment, 10+2 Science certificate, accepted radiography/imaging degree, current HP Para Medical/State Allied Health Council registration, age proof and applicable Himachal domicile/reservation certificates. Confirm the actual examination schedule and hall-ticket instructions once announced. Shortlisting and eventual departmental allotment still depend on score, category, preferences, available vacancies and verification.

Remember: the examination is a competitive screening for Post Code 26061, not a specialist doctor entrance examination. The 120-question format is confirmed, while a chapter-wise marks distribution, exact examination date, response-sheet release and result date are not stated in Advertisement 15/2026.