ISRO SDSC SHAR 2026: 97 Seats, 24 Post Codes, Refund Rules and Five Selection Routes

First Class Diploma in Mechanical Engineering. Minimum 3-year diploma from recognised university/institution; first class mandatory (pp.1,3).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 07 — Technical Assistant (Mechanical Engineering)

Notified vacancies: 7 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 1, OBC: 1, SC: 2, ST: 2, EWS: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 7, notified basic-pay scale ₹44,900–₹142,400 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 07

First Class Diploma in Mechanical Engineering. Minimum 3-year diploma from recognised university/institution; first class mandatory (pp.1,3).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 07 (Technical Assistant (Mechanical Engineering)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The skill test must assess the notified Mechanical Engineering discipline.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 07 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technical Assistant (Mechanical Engineering), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed Mechanical engineering qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on machine elements, workshop measurements, thermodynamics, materials, manufacturing and engineering drawing. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: The first-class three-year Mechanical Engineering diploma is essential; a different diploma title requires certified equivalence evidence.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 07, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹750, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹500 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The single PwBD-HH earmarking is within the seven notified vacancies, not an additional eighth seat; if no eligible PwBD candidate is available, the specifically identified post may be carried forward (pp.1,10).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.1, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 7.; One post identified for PwBD-HH within the advertised seven.

First Class Diploma in Electrical Engineering or Electrical & Electronics Engineering. Minimum 3-year diploma; either expressly notified stream accepted (pp.2,3).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 08 — Technical Assistant (Electrical Engineering / Electrical & Electronics Engineering)

Notified vacancies: 1 vacancy. Vertical reservation: OBC: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 7, notified basic-pay scale ₹44,900–₹142,400 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 08

First Class Diploma in Electrical Engineering or Electrical & Electronics Engineering. Minimum 3-year diploma; either expressly notified stream accepted (pp.2,3).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 08 (Technical Assistant (Electrical Engineering / Electrical & Electronics Engineering)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The skill test relates to the notified Electrical/Electrical & Electronics qualification.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 08 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technical Assistant (Electrical Engineering / Electrical & Electronics Engineering), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed Electrical / Electrical & Electronics Engineering qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on basic circuits, machines, electrical measurements, protection, control equipment and practical troubleshooting. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: The notification explicitly accepts Electrical Engineering OR Electrical & Electronics Engineering; do not silently broaden this to any electronics diploma.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 08, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹750, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹500 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The notification contains other special qualifications for different post codes; apply under this exact code rather than assuming related branches/trades are interchangeable.

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.2, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 1.

First Class Diploma in Computer Science & Engineering. Minimum 3-year diploma in notified discipline; first class (pp.2,3).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 09 — Technical Assistant (Computer Science & Engineering)

Notified vacancies: 1 vacancy. Vertical reservation: UR: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 7, notified basic-pay scale ₹44,900–₹142,400 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 09

First Class Diploma in Computer Science & Engineering. Minimum 3-year diploma in notified discipline; first class (pp.2,3).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 09 (Technical Assistant (Computer Science & Engineering)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The practical stage must relate to the notified Computer Science & Engineering qualification.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 09 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technical Assistant (Computer Science & Engineering), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed Computer Science & Engineering qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on programming fundamentals, operating systems, computer networks, database concepts and laboratory troubleshooting. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: The subject is precisely Computer Science & Engineering; a generic computer training certificate is not equivalent to the notified three-year first-class diploma.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 09, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹750, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹500 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The notification contains other special qualifications for different post codes; apply under this exact code rather than assuming related branches/trades are interchangeable.

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.2, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 1.

First Class Diploma in Electronics & Communication Engineering. Minimum 3-year diploma in notified discipline; first class (pp.2,3).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 10 — Technical Assistant (Electronics & Communication Engineering)

Notified vacancies: 3 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 2, SC: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 7, notified basic-pay scale ₹44,900–₹142,400 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 10

First Class Diploma in Electronics & Communication Engineering. Minimum 3-year diploma in notified discipline; first class (pp.2,3).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh; Propellant Complex Rasayani (PCR), Raigad, Maharashtra. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 10 (Technical Assistant (Electronics & Communication Engineering)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The notified Electronics & Communication specialization, not an unrelated branch, determines eligibility and relevant skill.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 10 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technical Assistant (Electronics & Communication Engineering), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed Electronics & Communication Engineering qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on electronic circuits, digital electronics, instrumentation, communication fundamentals and test equipment. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: The notified diploma is ECE specifically. The applicant must rank Sriharikota and Rasayani posting preferences when applying.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 10, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹750, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹500 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The application asks applicants to rank Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh) and PCR Rasayani (Maharashtra). Appointment follows merit-cum-preference and local seat availability; later non-joining at another site does not grant a transfer claim (pp.10–11).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.2, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 3.

First Class Diploma in Civil Engineering. Minimum 3-year diploma; first class from recognized university/institution (pp.2,3).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 11 — Technical Assistant (Civil Engineering)

Notified vacancies: 2 vacancies. Vertical reservation: OBC: 1, EWS: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 7, notified basic-pay scale ₹44,900–₹142,400 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 11

First Class Diploma in Civil Engineering. Minimum 3-year diploma; first class from recognized university/institution (pp.2,3).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 11 (Technical Assistant (Civil Engineering)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The test relates to the notified Civil Engineering diploma.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 11 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technical Assistant (Civil Engineering), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed Civil Engineering qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on surveying, building materials, basic structures, construction methods, drawing and measurement. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: The first-class three-year Civil Engineering diploma is essential; two vacancies are OBC 1 and EWS 1.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 11, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹750, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹500 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The notification contains other special qualifications for different post codes; apply under this exact code rather than assuming related branches/trades are interchangeable.

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.2, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 2.

First Class B.Sc. with Physics as main subject and Mathematics and Chemistry as ancillary subjects. All three subject conditions specified, not any B.Sc. Physics combination (p.2).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 12 — Scientific Assistant (Physics)

Notified vacancies: 2 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 1, OBC: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 7, notified basic-pay scale ₹44,900–₹142,400 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 12

First Class B.Sc. with Physics as main subject and Mathematics and Chemistry as ancillary subjects. All three subject conditions specified, not any B.Sc. Physics combination (p.2).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh; Balasore Rocket Launching Station (BRLS), Odisha. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 12 (Scientific Assistant (Physics)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The curriculum requirement is the first-class Physics B.Sc. with the stated two ancillary subjects.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 12 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Scientific Assistant (Physics), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed Physics qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on mechanics, electricity and magnetism, optics, measurements, laboratory methods and mathematical tools. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: Physics must be the B.Sc. main subject, with Mathematics AND Chemistry as ancillary subjects. Eligible posting preferences cover Sriharikota and Balasore.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 12, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹750, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹500 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: Two notified initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR Sriharikota and Balasore Rocket Launching Station (Odisha). These two vacancies are not stated to be one seat per site; no site-level split should be invented (p.10).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.2, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 2.

First Class Bachelor of Fine Arts (Photography) or Visual Arts (Cinematography). Specific photography or cinematography degree routes only (p.2).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 13 — Scientific Assistant (Fine Arts (Photography) / Visual Arts (Cinematography))

Notified vacancies: 1 vacancy. Vertical reservation: SC: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 7, notified basic-pay scale ₹44,900–₹142,400 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 13

First Class Bachelor of Fine Arts (Photography) or Visual Arts (Cinematography). Specific photography or cinematography degree routes only (p.2).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 13 (Scientific Assistant (Fine Arts (Photography) / Visual Arts (Cinematography))) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The relevant practical knowledge concerns the notified photography/cinematography arts degree.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 13 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Scientific Assistant (Fine Arts (Photography) / Visual Arts (Cinematography)), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed Fine Arts — Photography / Visual Arts — Cinematography qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on photographic exposure, lenses, lighting, digital imaging, composition and camera handling. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: A first-class Fine Arts (Photography) or Visual Arts (Cinematography) degree is specified; an unrelated general BA should not be assumed eligible.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 13, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹750, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹500 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The notification contains other special qualifications for different post codes; apply under this exact code rather than assuming related branches/trades are interchangeable.

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.2, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 1.

First Class Master’s Degree in Library Science / Library & Information Science or equivalent. Also requires first-class graduation; master first class (p.3).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 14 — Library Assistant 'A'

Notified vacancies: 3 vacancies. Vertical reservation: OBC: 1, SC: 1, EWS: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 7, notified basic-pay scale ₹44,900–₹142,400 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 14

First Class Master’s Degree in Library Science / Library & Information Science or equivalent. Also requires first-class graduation; master first class (p.3).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 14 (Library Assistant 'A') only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The notified library science master’s degree is the relevant subject of the written/skill assessment.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 14 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Library Assistant 'A', the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed Library Science / Library & Information Science qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on cataloguing principles, classification, reference resources, library automation and information retrieval. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: This post needs BOTH first-class graduation AND a first-class Master’s in Library Science, Library & Information Science or an accepted equivalent.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 14, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹750, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹500 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: Both educational levels are mandatory—first-class graduation PLUS first-class postgraduate library-science qualification. They are not either/or routes (p.3).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.3, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 3.

First Class Nursing Diploma of at least 3 years; registered with State Nursing Council. Course must be recognised by State/Central Government; State Nursing Council registration essential (p.3).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 15 — Nurse 'B'

Notified vacancies: 3 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 1, SC: 1, EWS: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 7, notified basic-pay scale ₹44,900–₹142,400 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 15

First Class Nursing Diploma of at least 3 years; registered with State Nursing Council. Course must be recognised by State/Central Government; State Nursing Council registration essential (p.3).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 15, Nurse 'B' only

1. Credential screening: Submit evidence of a first-class nursing diploma of at least three years, government recognition and State Nursing Council registration. Both course and registration requirements apply; a general B.Sc. is not an automatic alternative.
2. Nursing written CBT: 80 MCQs, 80 marks, 120 minutes; +1 correct, −0.33 wrong, zero unanswered. It tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed nursing curriculum. The 90-minute technical/trade paper is not the Nurse paper.
3. Nursing skill test: The authority shortlists on written performance, then assesses the skill test on a qualifying go/no-go basis. The notice does not state a numerical skill-test minimum for Nurse 'B'; copying the Technical Assistant group's 50/100 or 40/100 is incorrect.
4. Merit and tie-break: The panel is formed from written CBT marks among candidates who qualify the skill test; skill marks do not count toward final ranking. In a written-score tie, marks in the notified essential nursing qualification decide inter-se merit.

Syllabus boundary: The authority prescribes the relevant nursing curriculum but does not supply a chapter-by-chapter Nurse syllabus in this PDF. Preparation suggestions on the SarkariSapna syllabus page are editorial, not an official section-weightage promise. Source: pp. 3–4, 14–15; original PDF.

Nurse syllabus and credential evidence

The notice calls for theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed nursing course but gives no separate unit-wise Nurse subject grid. Revising the complete recognised diploma curriculum, clinical procedures, infection control and documentation may be useful as editorial suggestions, not notified sections. The first-class qualification, at least three years of programme duration and Council registration must be established with originals.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 15, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹750, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹500 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: State Nursing Council registration is not optional and must match a government-recognised nursing diploma programme (p.3).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.3, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 3.

ITI / NTC / NAC in Electrician trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Electrician qualification (p.4).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 16 — Technician 'B' (Electrician)

Notified vacancies: 5 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 2, OBC: 1, SC: 2. Pay: 7th CPC Level 3, notified basic-pay scale ₹21,700–₹69,100 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 16

ITI / NTC / NAC in Electrician trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Electrician qualification (p.4).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh; Propellant Complex Rasayani (PCR), Raigad, Maharashtra. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 16 (Technician 'B' (Electrician)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The qualifying trade assessment is linked to the NCVT Electrician trade.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 16 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technician 'B' (Electrician), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed NCVT Electrician trade qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on basic wiring, electrical safety, motors, protective devices, instruments and trade workshop procedures. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: SSC/SSLC pass AND NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC Electrician trade are required; other NCVT trades cannot be substituted automatically.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 16, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The application asks applicants to rank Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh) and PCR Rasayani (Maharashtra). Appointment follows merit-cum-preference and local seat availability; later non-joining at another site does not grant a transfer claim (pp.10–11).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.4, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 5. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

ITI / NTC / NAC in one of five notified chemical trades (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. Five notified alternative trades only; SSLC/SSC also essential (p.4).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 17 — Technician 'B' (Chemical)

Notified vacancies: 3 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 2, EWS: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 3, notified basic-pay scale ₹21,700–₹69,100 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 17

ITI / NTC / NAC in one of five notified chemical trades (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. Five notified alternative trades only; SSLC/SSC also essential (p.4).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh; Propellant Complex Rasayani (PCR), Raigad, Maharashtra. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 17 (Technician 'B' (Chemical)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The five explicitly permitted chemical trades are the alternative qualification routes; the trade-appropriate skill test is qualifying.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 17 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technician 'B' (Chemical), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed NCVT chemical trades qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on chemical process safety, materials, basic process instruments, lab procedures and trade-specific maintenance. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: Only the five listed NCVT trades—Chemical, Attendant Operator (Chemical), Instrument Mechanic (Chemical), Maintenance Mechanic (Chemical Plant), Laboratory Assistant (Chemical)—are specified.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 17, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The application asks applicants to rank Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh) and PCR Rasayani (Maharashtra). Appointment follows merit-cum-preference and local seat availability; later non-joining at another site does not grant a transfer claim (pp.10–11).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Five chemical trades are permitted as alternatives; choose the notified trade matching your NCVT record. A generic unspecified science certificate is not equivalent (p.4).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.4, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 3. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

ITI / NTC / NAC in Fitter trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Fitter qualification (p.4).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 18 — Technician 'B' (Fitter)

Notified vacancies: 17 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 5, OBC: 8, SC: 2, EWS: 2. Pay: 7th CPC Level 3, notified basic-pay scale ₹21,700–₹69,100 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 18

ITI / NTC / NAC in Fitter trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Fitter qualification (p.4).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh; Propellant Complex Rasayani (PCR), Raigad, Maharashtra. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 18 (Technician 'B' (Fitter)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The notified Fitter trade certificate, not a general technical diploma, is the relevant requirement.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 18 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technician 'B' (Fitter), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed NCVT Fitter trade qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on fitting operations, workshop measurement, basic engineering drawing, cutting tools and assembly practices. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: 17 notified Fitter seats include ONE PwBD-HH identified post, not an eighteenth seat. Earmarking rules appear on pp.4 and 10.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 18, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: One PwBD-HH identified position falls inside the 17 announced Fitter seats; it must not be added to vertical reservation counts (pp.4,10).

Post-specific eligibility warning: The application asks applicants to rank Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh) and PCR Rasayani (Maharashtra). Appointment follows merit-cum-preference and local seat availability; later non-joining at another site does not grant a transfer claim (pp.10–11).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.4, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 17.; One post identified for PwBD-HH within the advertised seventeen. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

ITI / NTC / NAC in Electronic Mechanic trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Electronic Mechanic qualification (p.5).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 19 — Technician 'B' (Electronic Mechanic)

Notified vacancies: 12 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 4, OBC: 6, EWS: 2. Pay: 7th CPC Level 3, notified basic-pay scale ₹21,700–₹69,100 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 19

ITI / NTC / NAC in Electronic Mechanic trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Electronic Mechanic qualification (p.5).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh; Propellant Complex Rasayani (PCR), Raigad, Maharashtra. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 19 (Technician 'B' (Electronic Mechanic)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The skill stage concerns the NCVT Electronic Mechanic trade.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 19 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technician 'B' (Electronic Mechanic), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed NCVT Electronic Mechanic trade qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on electronic components, soldering, digital basics, fault-finding, circuits and testing instruments. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: Post code 19 requires the named NCVT Electronic Mechanic qualification; NCVT Fitter/Electrician qualifications are not interchangeable.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 19, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The application asks applicants to rank Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh) and PCR Rasayani (Maharashtra). Appointment follows merit-cum-preference and local seat availability; later non-joining at another site does not grant a transfer claim (pp.10–11).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.5, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 12. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

NAC in Boiler Attendant trade from NCVT with first-class Boiler Attendant Certificate after SSLC/SSC. NAC (not generic ITI/NTC) plus First Class Boiler Attendant certificate; PCR Rasayani posting (p.5).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 20 — Technician 'B' (Boiler Attendant) - PCR Unit, Rasayani

Notified vacancies: 2 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 2. Pay: 7th CPC Level 3, notified basic-pay scale ₹21,700–₹69,100 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 20

NAC in Boiler Attendant trade from NCVT with first-class Boiler Attendant Certificate after SSLC/SSC. NAC (not generic ITI/NTC) plus First Class Boiler Attendant certificate; PCR Rasayani posting (p.5).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: Propellant Complex Rasayani (PCR), Raigad, Maharashtra. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 20 (Technician 'B' (Boiler Attendant) - PCR Unit, Rasayani) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The NAC Boiler Attendant certificate AND first-class Boiler Attendant credential must both be proved.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 20 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technician 'B' (Boiler Attendant) - PCR Unit, Rasayani, the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed NCVT Boiler Attendant trade qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on boiler components, operating safeguards, pressure and temperature monitoring and plant safety. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: Critical extra condition: NCVT NAC IN Boiler Attendant (not generic ITI/NTC options) PLUS a first-class Boiler Attendant Certificate. Posting is PCR Rasayani.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 20, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The sole posting is Propellant Complex Rasayani, Maharashtra, not the Sriharikota launch base (p.11).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.5, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 2.; Official portal expressly identifies the Propellant Complex Rasayani unit. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

ITI / NTC / NAC in Turner trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Turner qualification (p.5).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 21 — Technician 'B' (Turner)

Notified vacancies: 1 vacancy. Vertical reservation: UR: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 3, notified basic-pay scale ₹21,700–₹69,100 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 21

ITI / NTC / NAC in Turner trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Turner qualification (p.5).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 21 (Technician 'B' (Turner)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The skill stage corresponds to NCVT Turner.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 21 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technician 'B' (Turner), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed NCVT Turner trade qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on turning operations, cutting parameters, machine safety, lathe measurement and engineering drawing. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: The trade certificate must be NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC in Turner; the single notified vacancy is unreserved.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 21, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.5, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 1. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

ITI / NTC / NAC in Refrigeration and Air Conditioning trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT R & AC qualification (p.5).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 22 — Technician 'B' (Refrigeration and Air Conditioning)

Notified vacancies: 1 vacancy. Vertical reservation: UR: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 3, notified basic-pay scale ₹21,700–₹69,100 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 22

ITI / NTC / NAC in Refrigeration and Air Conditioning trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT R & AC qualification (p.5).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 22 (Technician 'B' (Refrigeration and Air Conditioning)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The skill stage corresponds to the notified R&AC trade.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 22 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technician 'B' (Refrigeration and Air Conditioning), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed NCVT Refrigeration & Air Conditioning trade qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on refrigeration cycle, compressors, refrigerant safety, servicing practices and fault diagnosis. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: Only the specified NCVT R&AC trade qualification is stated; related vocational courses are not automatically interchangeable.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 22, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.5, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 1. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

ITI / NTC / NAC in Civil Engineering Assistant trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Civil Engineering Assistant qualification (p.5).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 23 — Technician 'B' (Civil Engineering Assistant)

Notified vacancies: 1 vacancy. Vertical reservation: OBC: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 3, notified basic-pay scale ₹21,700–₹69,100 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 23

ITI / NTC / NAC in Civil Engineering Assistant trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Civil Engineering Assistant qualification (p.5).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 23 (Technician 'B' (Civil Engineering Assistant)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The relevant trade is Civil Engineering Assistant, not all civil qualifications.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 23 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technician 'B' (Civil Engineering Assistant), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed NCVT Civil Engineering Assistant trade qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on basic construction measurements, surveying support, materials and civil drawing. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: The specific NCVT Civil Engineering Assistant trade is prescribed; the vacancy is OBC-reserved.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 23, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.5, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 1. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

ITI / NTC / NAC in Photography / Digital Photography trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT photography trade qualification (p.5).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 24 — Technician 'B' (Photography / Digital Photography)

Notified vacancies: 1 vacancy. Vertical reservation: UR: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 3, notified basic-pay scale ₹21,700–₹69,100 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 24

ITI / NTC / NAC in Photography / Digital Photography trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT photography trade qualification (p.5).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 24 (Technician 'B' (Photography / Digital Photography)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The relevant NCVT trade is Photography / Digital Photography, distinct from code 13’s Fine Arts degree.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 24 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Technician 'B' (Photography / Digital Photography), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed NCVT Photography / Digital Photography trade qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on camera operation, exposure, light, digital image workflow, visual composition and equipment care. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: The prescribed NCVT photography trade qualification is distinct from the degree specified for Scientific Assistant code 13.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 24, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.5, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 1. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

ITI / NTC / NAC in Draughtsman (Civil) trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Draughtsman Civil qualification (p.5).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 25 — Draughtsman 'B' (Civil)

Notified vacancies: 1 vacancy. Vertical reservation: UR: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 3, notified basic-pay scale ₹21,700–₹69,100 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 25

ITI / NTC / NAC in Draughtsman (Civil) trade (NCVT) after SSLC/SSC. SSLC/SSC pass PLUS NCVT Draughtsman Civil qualification (p.5).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 25 (Draughtsman 'B' (Civil)) only

1. Written CBT (screening and merit): 80 objective questions, 80 marks, 90 minutes; award +1 for each correct answer, 0 for an unanswered question and deduct 0.33 for each wrong answer. The authority tests theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed qualification curriculum. This is the actual 90-minute paper for this post—not Nurse, Fireman, Driver or MTS timing.
2. Minimum written qualification: 32/80 for UR; 24/80 for a reserved-category applicant only against an eligible notified reserved vacancy. These are eligibility floors, not actual final selection cutoffs. Do not apply a reserved vacancy’s lower threshold indiscriminately to UR competition.
3. Call for skill test: Candidates are ranked by written-test marks and shortlisted category-wise approximately 1:5 with at least 10 candidates, as the notice provides. Shortlisting is not an assurance of final selection.
4. Qualifying skill test: 100 marks; minimum 50/100 UR or 40/100 for a category eligible against a notified reserved post. It is expressly go/no-go. Its marks are not added to the CBT score. The practical test is linked to the Draughtsman (Civil) NCVT trade.
5. Final panel and ties: Among skill-qualified applicants, vacancies are filled according to written-test ranking. If scores tie, the first comparison is marks in the prescribed essential qualification—the applicable graduation/diploma, SSC/SSLC or NCVT ITI/NTC/NAC credential. If still required, older age is the next tie-break. Original qualification and category documents must withstand verification.

Official basis: RMT/03/2026, pp. 13–14. The notification does not specify an actual CBT date, a post-specific distribution of the 80 questions, or a guaranteed final merit cutoff. Official advertisement · Recruitment-specific syllabus.

Post Code 25 syllabus — official scope versus preparation advice

Official scope: For Draughtsman 'B' (Civil), the authority announces a written examination covering breadth and depth of the prescribed NCVT Draughtsman (Civil) trade qualification curriculum (p.13). It has not provided a numbered chapter-wise or unit-wise breakdown for this code in the 43-page advertisement. Do not mistake general coaching material for the official paper blueprint.

Suggested preparation only — NOT the official syllabus or predicted weightage: A candidate revising the relevant qualification may focus on civil drafting conventions, drawings, scale, measurement, CAD basics and site-plan interpretation. This is practical editorial guidance derived from the type of qualification, not a source-asserted question distribution.

Eligibility trap: Only the notified NCVT Draughtsman (Civil) trade qualification and matric-level eligibility route are specified.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 25, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.5, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 1. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

SSLC/SSC/Matric/10th pass and Fireman physical fitness/PET standards. Mandatory Annexure-C medical and PET standards; initial PME certificate Annexure-A (pp.6,15-17,30-33).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 26 — Fireman 'A'

Notified vacancies: 2 vacancies. Vertical reservation: SC: 1, ST: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 2, notified basic-pay scale ₹19,900–₹63,200 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 26

SSLC/SSC/Matric/10th pass and Fireman physical fitness/PET standards. Mandatory Annexure-C medical and PET standards; initial PME certificate Annexure-A (pp.6,15-17,30-33).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–25 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 26, Fireman 'A' only

1. Before applying: Upload an Annexure-A Preliminary Medical Examination (PME) certificate issued by an eligible registered allopathic practitioner serving in government health services, not below the rank of Assistant Civil Surgeon or equivalent. Certificate validity is six months and it must remain valid on PET day. Incomplete/wrong-form certificates can disqualify a candidate.
2. Written CBT: 80 questions / 80 marks / 120 minutes; +1 correct, −0.33 wrong, zero if unanswered. The 43-page advertisement provides the CBT scheme but not a separate Fireman chapter-wise question blueprint.
3. Medical eligibility and PET shortlisting: Among applicants meeting PME norms, shortlisting to PET uses CBT marks at a maximum category-wise 1:50 vacancy-to-candidate ratio (additional batches may be called under the specified conditions).
4. PET Stage I — run: Men run 1,500 m, women/transgender candidates 800 m. Up to age 40: men 7 minutes, women/transgender 4 minutes. Above 40: men 8 minutes, women/transgender 5 minutes, only where otherwise eligible under actual age-relaxation rules. Failure ends participation.
5. PET Stage II — all events compulsory: Rope climb (men 5 m / women-transgender 4.5 m at age up to 40); dummy carry 25 m (60 kg male, 50 kg women/transgender); long jump (3.8 m men / 3.5 m women-transgender) and 100-m run (15 s men / 17 s women-transgender) for age up to 40. Annexure-C also gives the above-40 alternatives. Each event is go/no-go; no event may be skipped after failure.
6. Detailed Medical Examination (DME): Candidates passing both PET stages may be called in batches. Annexure-C includes height/weight/BMI, vision, hearing, chest and medical exclusions; self-assessment cannot replace official medical examination.
7. Final panel: Only candidates who qualify PET and DME can be empanelled, ranked by written-test marks. The notified essential academic qualification score breaks written ties. Physical-test marks are not added to written merit.

Special warning: Height, vision and running standards are distinct legal/medical eligibility requirements, not optional study topics. See pp. 15–17 and Annexures A–C (pp. 30–33). Official PDF · Complete Fireman syllabus and PET tables.

Fireman PET/medical standards that decide eligibility

The exact full age-/sex-specific PET standards and medical disqualifications appear in Annexure-C pp.32–33; do not rely only on this summary. A candidate who fails even one PET event cannot proceed to the remaining events. The above-40 test limits do not imply normal Fireman eligibility above 40, which still depends on lawful age relaxation.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 26, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The Annexure-A PME certificate must be provided with the application, not only after CBT qualification. The Annexure-C PET/medical rules are separate pass/fail requirements (pp.15–17, 30–33).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.6, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 2. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

SSLC/SSC/Matric/10th pass, valid LVD licence and 3 years LVD experience. All three years of driving experience AFTER obtaining a valid driving licence (pp.6,9).

Required: Yes · Description: 3 years working as Light Vehicle Driver, all AFTER valid driving licence issuance. Cert from government/semi-government agency or registered company/society/trust, not individuals; part-time excluded. PDF pp.6,8-9. · Minimum Years: 3

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 27 — Light Vehicle Driver 'A' (LVD 'A')

Notified vacancies: 1 vacancy. Vertical reservation: OBC: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 2, notified basic-pay scale ₹19,900–₹63,200 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 27

SSLC/SSC/Matric/10th pass, valid LVD licence and 3 years LVD experience. All three years of driving experience AFTER obtaining a valid driving licence (pp.6,9).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 27, Light Vehicle Driver 'A' only

1. Experience and licence verification: Three years as a light-vehicle driver with a valid LVD licence is required for Sriharikota code 27. Count the prescribed experience only after first obtaining the relevant valid driving licence. Part-time experience and certificates issued by individual private persons are unacceptable; the employer evidence must come from government/semi-government or registered organisations as specified in p. 9.
2. Written Driver CBT: 100 MCQs / 100 marks / 120 minutes, +1 per correct and −0.25 per wrong answer. Parts are A Motor Vehicles Act 50, B Elementary English 15, C Arithmetic 15, D General Knowledge 20. These are the actual notified post-wise section counts.
3. Separate written qualifying floors: A candidate needs 50% in Part A (at least 25/50) AND 50% in B+C+D combined (at least 25/50). The advertisement describes a conditional relaxation up to 25% in written qualifying levels for specified reserved vacancies if normal selection standards yield too few candidates; it is not an automatic category-wide relaxation.
4. Shortlisting for driving skill: Written-merit, category-wise 1:5 ratio with at least 10 candidates, in batches as per the notice.
5. Driving skill test: Every category must secure at least 60%. This is go/no-go only, not added to the written ranking; reservation does not lower the 60% driving skill requirement.
6. Final panel: Among driving-skill-qualified candidates, CBT marks determine the order. Ties are settled by marks in the officially prescribed essential academic qualification.

Official syllabus: Annexure-I (p. 34) lists Motor Vehicles Act topics (licensing, registration, traffic, insurance, penalties and accidents), 8th-standard English, 10th-standard arithmetic and GK. See full syllabus and all four sections, but rely on the 43-page original PDF for final legal wording (pp. 9, 17–19, 34).

Official written syllabus — Driver Part A to D

The 50% Part A AND 50% B+C+D combined tests are both required by the written-pass rule (p.18). Across different driver posts the paper is shared, but the licensed experience proof and initial work location are different. The other sections' topic lists are verbatim scope from Annexure-I p.34, not guessed coaching content.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 27, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Experience certificates from individuals and part-time driving work are explicitly excluded; count valid experience after licensing (p.9).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.6, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 1. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

SSLC/SSC/Matric/10th pass, valid HVD licence and 5 years driving experience. At least 3 of 5 years as HVD, balance light-motor-vehicle driving; badge rule (pp.7,9).

Required: Yes · Description: At least 5 years post-licence driving, including 3 years Heavy Vehicle Driver; remaining experience driving light motor vehicles. Employer-issued certificate and no part-time experience. PDF pp.7,9. · Minimum Years: 5

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 28 — Heavy Vehicle Driver 'A' (HVD 'A')

Notified vacancies: 7 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 3, OBC: 2, SC: 1, EWS: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 2, notified basic-pay scale ₹19,900–₹63,200 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 28

SSLC/SSC/Matric/10th pass, valid HVD licence and 5 years driving experience. At least 3 of 5 years as HVD, balance light-motor-vehicle driving; badge rule (pp.7,9).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 28, Heavy Vehicle Driver 'A' only

1. Experience and licence verification: For HVD: five years of qualifying driving experience, including at least three as heavy-vehicle driver, with the remaining period in light vehicles; hold a valid HVD licence. The Public Service Badge condition has the notice-specific Andhra Pradesh joining exception. Count the prescribed experience only after first obtaining the relevant valid driving licence. Part-time experience and certificates issued by individual private persons are unacceptable; the employer evidence must come from government/semi-government or registered organisations as specified in p. 9.
2. Written Driver CBT: 100 MCQs / 100 marks / 120 minutes, +1 per correct and −0.25 per wrong answer. Parts are A Motor Vehicles Act 50, B Elementary English 15, C Arithmetic 15, D General Knowledge 20. These are the actual notified post-wise section counts.
3. Separate written qualifying floors: A candidate needs 50% in Part A (at least 25/50) AND 50% in B+C+D combined (at least 25/50). The advertisement describes a conditional relaxation up to 25% in written qualifying levels for specified reserved vacancies if normal selection standards yield too few candidates; it is not an automatic category-wide relaxation.
4. Shortlisting for driving skill: Written-merit, category-wise 1:5 ratio with at least 10 candidates, in batches as per the notice.
5. Driving skill test: Every category must secure at least 60%. This is go/no-go only, not added to the written ranking; reservation does not lower the 60% driving skill requirement.
6. Final panel: Among driving-skill-qualified candidates, CBT marks determine the order. Ties are settled by marks in the officially prescribed essential academic qualification.

Official syllabus: Annexure-I (p. 34) lists Motor Vehicles Act topics (licensing, registration, traffic, insurance, penalties and accidents), 8th-standard English, 10th-standard arithmetic and GK. See full syllabus and all four sections, but rely on the 43-page original PDF for final legal wording (pp. 9, 17–19, 34).

Official written syllabus — Driver Part A to D

The 50% Part A AND 50% B+C+D combined tests are both required by the written-pass rule (p.18). Across different driver posts the paper is shared, but the licensed experience proof and initial work location are different. The other sections' topic lists are verbatim scope from Annexure-I p.34, not guessed coaching content.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 28, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: A Public Service Badge is required where statutory. Applicants from states/UTs without the badge requirement must fulfil it within three months of joining in Andhra Pradesh, as the notice says (p.7).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Across post codes 16–28, seven posts are identified for ESM horizontally across the group, and cannot simply be added to the 97 notified vacancies (p.8).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Experience certificates from individuals and part-time driving work are explicitly excluded; count valid experience after licensing (p.9).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.7, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 7. ESM 07 positions identified collectively within codes 16–28 (allocation to each unspecified), not seven extra posts.

Matriculation / SSLC / SSC or equivalent pass. Notification does not prescribe trade or degree for MTS (p.8).

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 29 — Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS)

Notified vacancies: 16 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 6, OBC: 4, SC: 3, ST: 1, EWS: 2. Pay: 7th CPC Level 1, notified basic-pay scale ₹18,000–₹56,900 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 29

Matriculation / SSLC / SSC or equivalent pass. Notification does not prescribe trade or degree for MTS (p.8).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–25 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 29, Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS) only

1. Essential entry qualification: Matric / SSLC / SSC or equivalent pass. No ITI trade, diploma or degree is specifically demanded for this MTS post.
2. Written CBT — the only notified competitive selection examination: 100 MCQs / 100 marks / 90 minutes, +1 correct, −0.25 wrong, zero for an unanswered question. The four subject groups are Numerical and Mathematical Ability, Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving, General Awareness, and English Language and Comprehension. No official 25-25-25-25 question split is published; the table shows the total 100 across all subjects.
3. Written qualifying standard: UR/EWS 50%; OBC 45%; other reserved categories 40% against notified reserved vacancies. These are eligibility minima, not announced final selection cutoffs.
4. Final selection: The panel uses the written-test score alone to the extent of notified vacancies. Tie 1: Reasoning and Problem Solving score; tie 2: older candidate by date of birth. No additional MTS skill test or interview is notified.

Source: pp. 8, 12 and 19–20. Original SDSC advertisement · Detailed MTS syllabus and pattern.

Notified MTS subject syllabus — no artificial section-weightage

The four published subjects are Numerical and Mathematical Ability; Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving; General Awareness; and English Language and Comprehension. The authority sets 100 questions overall in 90 minutes and −0.25 for an incorrect answer. Unlike the Driver paper, it does not allot exact questions to individual MTS subjects. Any website claiming an official 25-question share for each subject from this notice would be fabricating the blueprint.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 29, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: The 100 MTS questions are not divided into official four equal 25-question units. Exam coaching distributions should not be labelled notified (pp.19–20).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.8, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 16.

SSLC/SSC/Matric/10th pass, valid LVD licence and 3 years LVD experience. ADRIN Secunderabad; all three years after valid licence; one UR seat earmarked for ESM (pp.8-9).

Required: Yes · Description: 3 years working as Light Vehicle Driver, all AFTER valid driving licence issuance. Cert from government/semi-government agency or registered company/society/trust, not individuals; part-time excluded. PDF pp.6,8-9. · Minimum Years: 3

Description: SC/ST +5 years and OBC +3 years against reserved posts for those categories; ESM, PwBD, central government employees, sportspersons etc per applicable Government of India rules (PDF p.12).

Post Code 30 — Light Vehicle Driver 'A' (LVD 'A') - ADRIN Secunderabad

Notified vacancies: 4 vacancies. Vertical reservation: UR: 3, OBC: 1. Pay: 7th CPC Level 2, notified basic-pay scale ₹19,900–₹63,200 per month. Basic pay, the authority's approximate basic-plus-DA gross calculation, HRA and take-home salary are not interchangeable.

Essential qualification — Post Code 30

SSLC/SSC/Matric/10th pass, valid LVD licence and 3 years LVD experience. ADRIN Secunderabad; all three years after valid licence; one UR seat earmarked for ESM (pp.8-9).

Eligibility reference date: 9 November 2026; minimum and maximum ordinary age 18–35 years, subject to category-/vacancy-specific official relaxations. The advertised essential qualification must already be possessed, valid or issued by the closing date; pending final results are not the same as documentary eligibility.

Initial posting locations: Advanced Data Processing Research Institute (ADRIN), Telangana. Selected employees can nevertheless have all-India transfer liability during DoS/ISRO service, as explained in the notice (pp.10–11).

Selection process — Post Code 30, Light Vehicle Driver 'A' only

1. Experience and licence verification: Three years as a light-vehicle driver with a valid LVD licence is required. Code 30 is the ADRIN Secunderabad vacancy, and one of its three UR seats is identified for ex-servicemen. Count the prescribed experience only after first obtaining the relevant valid driving licence. Part-time experience and certificates issued by individual private persons are unacceptable; the employer evidence must come from government/semi-government or registered organisations as specified in p. 9.
2. Written Driver CBT: 100 MCQs / 100 marks / 120 minutes, +1 per correct and −0.25 per wrong answer. Parts are A Motor Vehicles Act 50, B Elementary English 15, C Arithmetic 15, D General Knowledge 20. These are the actual notified post-wise section counts.
3. Separate written qualifying floors: A candidate needs 50% in Part A (at least 25/50) AND 50% in B+C+D combined (at least 25/50). The advertisement describes a conditional relaxation up to 25% in written qualifying levels for specified reserved vacancies if normal selection standards yield too few candidates; it is not an automatic category-wide relaxation.
4. Shortlisting for driving skill: Written-merit, category-wise 1:5 ratio with at least 10 candidates, in batches as per the notice.
5. Driving skill test: Every category must secure at least 60%. This is go/no-go only, not added to the written ranking; reservation does not lower the 60% driving skill requirement.
6. Final panel: Among driving-skill-qualified candidates, CBT marks determine the order. Ties are settled by marks in the officially prescribed essential academic qualification.

Official syllabus: Annexure-I (p. 34) lists Motor Vehicles Act topics (licensing, registration, traffic, insurance, penalties and accidents), 8th-standard English, 10th-standard arithmetic and GK. See full syllabus and all four sections, but rely on the 43-page original PDF for final legal wording (pp. 9, 17–19, 34).

Official written syllabus — Driver Part A to D

The 50% Part A AND 50% B+C+D combined tests are both required by the written-pass rule (p.18). Across different driver posts the paper is shared, but the licensed experience proof and initial work location are different. The other sections' topic lists are verbatim scope from Annexure-I p.34, not guessed coaching content.

Practical application and proof checklist

Your application must match post code 30, with its own registration and processing-fee payment of ₹500, even if you apply for a second SDSC post code. Refund depends on attending the written examination: specified exempt categories receive the full amount back; other candidates receive ₹400 back after the non-refundable application fee, according to pp.23–24. Verify payment status and save the personalised acknowledgement bearing the post code and registration number.

Document evidence: notified educational/trade marksheets and certificates; caste/EWS/PwBD/ESM evidence where applicable; government employer NOC where required; role-specific licence, Nursing Council registration or Fireman PME as relevant. Uploads include the exact photograph and signature specifications on p.22 and originals are checked at the notified verification stages.

Post-specific eligibility warning: All four seats are at ADRIN Secunderabad (Telangana). One of the three UR positions is identified for ex-servicemen; it is not a fifth seat (p.8).

Post-specific eligibility warning: Experience certificates from individuals and part-time driving work are explicitly excluded; count valid experience after licensing (p.9).

Authoritative references: post vacancy/essential qualification PDF p.8, category and posting qualifications pp.9–12, selection pp.13–20, application and document instructions pp.21–28; the Fireman and Driver appendices apply only where indicated. See the complete 43-page official recruitment notice, and SDSC SHAR 2026 exam and syllabus information.

SDSC SHAR notification requires general and shift/emergency duties including round-the-clock assignments (p.25). The precise technical/professional duties vary by the advertised trade and allocated unit; a detailed role-specific task list was not notified.

Official category allocations total 4.; One of three UR vacancies is identified for Ex-servicemen; this is a horizontal identification, not one extra seat. Official portal expressly identifies ADRIN Secunderabad. Code 30: one UR seat earmarked for ESM (horizontal), already counted.