ISRO SDSC SHAR 2026: 97 Seats, 24 Post Codes, Refund Rules and Five Selection Routes Syllabus

SDSC SHAR Technical, Scientific, Library and Trade Examinations — Official Scheme and Post-Wise Preparation

Quick route check: This page is ONLY for codes 07–14 and 16–25. Written CBT: 80 MCQs, 90 minutes, −0.33 negative marking. After CBT: a 100-mark qualifying skill test; written marks decide merit. The source provides a prescribed-disciplinary curriculum but no official topic-by-topic chapter list for all 18 post codes.

Advertisement: SDSC SHAR/RMT/03/2026 (19 October 2026). Eligible post codes: 07–14 and 16–25. This is the selection route for Technical Assistant, Scientific Assistant, Library Assistant 'A', Technician 'B' and Draughtsman 'B'. It does not apply to Nurse 'B', Fireman, Drivers or MTS, which have separate patterns. The authority describes the technical/trade syllabus as theoretical and practical knowledge covering the breadth and depth of the prescribed curriculum. It does not provide an independent chapter-by-chapter technical syllabus for each of these 18 codes in this advertisement. Official advertisement PDF, pp. 1–5, 13–14.

Official written-test pattern

Calculation, not an official cut-off: 52 correct answers, 12 wrong answers and 16 unattempted give 52 − (12 × 0.33) = 48.04 written marks. The notified 32/80 or 24/80 figures are minimum qualifying marks, not the marks needed for actual selection or a category-wise final cut-off. Actual merit depends on written-test ranking and vacancies.

Post-code-specific eligible curriculum and credential gates

The rows below identify the official qualification/discipline against which the prescribed curriculum will be assessed. They are not an invented ISRO chapter list. 'First Class' and the required combined qualifications must be checked before preparing.

For code 17, the five permitted trades in the notice are Chemical, Attendant Operator (Chemical), Instrument Mechanic (Chemical), Maintenance Mechanic (Chemical Plant), and Laboratory Assistant (Chemical). The broad label 'Chemical' cannot be taken to mean that any chemistry or lab qualification is eligible. Technical Assistant diploma duration is explicitly at least three years. A Library Assistant needs both graduation and the qualifying Master's; a Master's alone does not replace the graduation condition. Qualifications: PDF pp.1–5.

Syllabus-status distinction: official scope versus suggested revision

Officially confirmed: Each code is assessed for its own prescribed educational/trade curriculum; the same 80-question marking rule applies across the technical, scientific, library and trade group. Not published here: a separate chapter-weightage table, count of questions per technical subject, particular textbook, detailed practical tasks, and dates of the test. Do not present any such details as an official ISRO blueprint.

Suggested revision (editorial guidance, not notified topics): Code 07 candidates can review core diploma mechanical principles relevant to their completed curriculum; code 08 electrical and electrical-electronics fundamentals; code 09 computer-science engineering concepts; codes 10–11 the respective electronics/civil diploma material; code 12 the notified Physics-main, Mathematics-ancillary and Chemistry-ancillary subject combination; code 13 photography/cinematography fundamentals; code 14 library/information-science degree concepts; codes 16–25 their exact NCVT trade theory and practical concepts. These are curriculum-based preparation suggestions, not a claim that ISRO has published those chapters or their weightage.

Skill test, shortlist and final merit

1. On written performance, candidates are shortlisted category-wise at 1:5 against vacancies, subject to at least 10 candidates; calls may be made in batches (PDF pp.13–14).
2. Skill test: 100 marks, qualifying only. The notified pass standards are 50/100 (UR) and 40/100 (eligible reserved candidates against reserved vacancies). Skill marks do not enter final rank.
3. The panel is ordered by written-test scores among skill-qualified candidates. Written-score ties are resolved first through the academic marks of the essential notified qualification; if necessary, older age ranks ahead.
4. A candidate can exceed the written qualifying floor but still fail to obtain the skill-test shortlist because the ratio and seat-specific written ranking apply. Conversely, scoring highly on skill does not compensate for a lower written rank.

Candidate checklist and recruitment links

• Check the precise post code and recognition/class/duration/trade before choosing a paper; a Technician (Fitter) credential cannot be assumed valid for a Civil Engineering Assistant post.
• Revise by the notified discipline rather than downloading a generic all-trades syllabus labelled 'official'.
• Use the SarkariSapna government exams directory for separately published exam records and the SarkariSapna syllabus directory for officially linked syllabi; an individual SDSC exam date or detailed technical-topic PDF was not announced in this 43-page advertisement.
• To compare recruitment eligibility, explore diploma-level recruitment listings or ITI-level recruitment listings. These are general site directories, not proof of an SDSC-specific study course.
• Return to the parent SDSC SHAR 97-vacancy recruitment for post-code fees, age, reservation, posting and application details. Parent article link is operational after this recruitment is published.

Primary source: SDSC SHAR/RMT/03/2026, PDF pp.1–5, 13–14, 20. No exam date, skill-test date, admit card release, answer key or cut-off is notified in the advertisement.

ISRO SDSC SHAR Nurse 'B' (Post Code 15) — Verified CBT Scheme and Nursing-Curriculum Guidance

Quick route check: Nurse B code 15 has an 80-question CBT over 120 minutes, followed by a qualifying skill test. Written marks count for merit; skill-test marks do not. The advertisement does not supply a standalone chapter-wise nursing syllabus.

Nurse 'B' is not part of the Technical Assistant 90-minute exam. It has its own 120-minute written test followed by a qualifying skill test. The notified essential entry qualification is first-class nursing diploma of at least three years, recognised by the State/Central Government, with registration at the relevant State Nursing Council. Three Nurse 'B' positions are notified (UR 1, SC 1, EWS 1). Official PDF pp.3–4,14–15.

Exact official written-test pattern

This notification does not publish a Nurse-specific chapter-wise subject allocation, exam date, exact numeric skill-test pass score or Nurse-specific written minimum qualifying cut-off. Importing the technical/trade group’s 32/80 and 50/100 thresholds into the Nurse record would be inaccurate. The source clearly describes Nurse skill test as qualifying only without adding its marks to final merit.

Notified syllabus scope versus suggested study areas

Official: the authority says the written test covers theoretical and practical knowledge of the prescribed nursing curriculum; it does not supply a separate list of question topics. Suggested preparation only (not a published paper blueprint): use your recognised nursing diploma curriculum to revise patient assessment, nursing procedures, clinical safety, infection prevention, medication administration, documentation and patient communication. This is editorial revision advice based on the qualification, not an assertion that all these areas will receive questions.

A candidate should not confuse a degree from another healthcare stream with the notified nursing diploma. At the application and verification stages, check (i) first-class performance, (ii) three-year course duration, (iii) official recognition, and (iv) State Nursing Council registration. The written test cannot remedy an ineligible nursing credential.

How shortlisting and merit work

1. A valid application is screened against the essential nursing diploma and registration conditions.
2. The 80-mark, 120-minute CBT measures the relevant prescribed curriculum.
3. Candidates are shortlisted on written-test marks for a separate skill test.
4. The skill test uses go/no-go evaluation; marks obtained there do not add to the final score.
5. The final panel is ranked by written marks among skill-qualified applicants; essential academic marks resolve a tie. Numerical skill cut-off and written qualifying threshold are not specified in the Nurse section.

Worked marking example (arithmetic illustration): with 55 correct, 10 wrong and 15 unanswered, CBT score is 55 − (10 × 0.33) = 51.70/80; this is not a prediction of selection.

Related SarkariSapna resources

See the government examinations directory for announced exam records and the official-syllabus directory for separately linked syllabus material. The recruitment overview and post-code details contain Nurse salary, posting, fees and application procedure; the parent page is available once this recruitment is published. There is no official Nurse admit-card date in the present advertisement.

Authority: PDF pp.3–4 and 14–15 (selection), p.20 (CBT). No official chapter-level Nurse syllabus is appended.

ISRO SDSC SHAR Fireman 'A' (Code 26) — CBT, PME, PET Stage I/II and DME

Quick route check: Fireman A code 26 requires a preliminary medical certificate with the application, then 80-question/120-minute CBT, PET Stage I, PET Stage II and DME. Each physical event is compulsory. The advertisement provides full physical standards in Annexure-C but does not list chapter-wise Fireman CBT subjects.

The two notified Fireman 'A' seats are SC 1 and ST 1. The normal age band is 18–25 as on 9 November 2026, subject to the applicable official reservation/relaxation rules. Fireman selection is not a skill test of 100 scoring marks: it comprises a written test, preliminary medical eligibility, two separate physical efficiency stages and a detailed medical examination. Only candidates who pass the required physical and medical stages are ranked by written-test marks. PDF pp.6,12,15–17,30–33.

Official CBT pattern and role of marks

Official-versus-suggested syllabus: The advertisement supplies the question count, time and marking but no Fireman chapter-wise written syllabus. Candidates may revise appropriate general fire-service knowledge and basic 10th-standard concepts as non-official preparation suggestions; do not represent these as notified sections or guaranteed weightage.

Annexure-A — Preliminary Medical Examination certificate

A preliminary medical examination (PME) certificate in the prescribed Annexure-A form is required with the application. It must be issued by a Government Health Service registered allopathic medical practitioner not below Assistant Civil Surgeon or equivalent. Validity is six months; it must also remain valid at the time of PET. An incomplete, invalid or incorrect-format certificate can disqualify an otherwise successful CBT candidate (pp.15–16, Annexure-A p.30).

Annexure-C — Physical fitness requirements

Waist-to-hip ratio must be 1 or less. Distance vision 6/6 without glasses or aids in each eye, normal near vision (with the notified presbyopia correction exception above 40), full field of vision and normal hearing are among Annexure-C standards. The medical appendix also addresses colour/night blindness, squint, musculoskeletal deformities and other disqualifying medical findings. The online summary is not a substitute for Annexure-C medical assessment; review the original source rather than self-certifying a medical outcome.

PET Stage I — Running; not interchangeable with Stage II

The Appendix's above-40 PET standard exists despite a general Fireman age limit of 25 because some candidates may qualify under applicable upper-age relaxations. It does not mean ordinary applicants aged over 40 have open eligibility.

PET Stage II — Each event must be passed

Spiked running shoes are not permitted. The four Stage-II tests are all go/no-go. If an applicant fails any event, they cannot proceed to remaining PET events. Only those clearing Stage I and Stage II can reach DME (p.16 and Annexure-C p.33).

Complete Fireman selection sequence and documentary traps

1. Submit the prescribed Annexure-A PME form with valid medical attestation when applying.
2. Sit for the 80-mark CBT; qualified/eligible candidates are shortlisted category-wise for PET up to 1:50 of seats. If insufficient qualified candidates remain, the committee can call additional batches at the notified ratio.
3. Present a PME certificate valid on PET day and the Annexure-B candidate declaration; declaration concerns the candidate's voluntary participation and liability provisions.
4. PET Stage I running is compulsory; only qualifiers attend Stage II.
5. All Stage II events are compulsory and individually qualifying. Stage II failure prevents progression.
6. Qualifiers may be called in batches for DME. Final empanelment follows CBT marks among DME-qualified candidates. Written-score tie is resolved by notified essential academic marks.

For an applicant with a strong CBT score, missing the medical certificate or failing a single PET event can stop progression; this is a source-derived procedural consequence, not a forecast of actual selection.

Relevant internal resources

Read the SarkariSapna examinations directory for published exam updates; browse official syllabus and physical-standard notices in the syllabus directory, where available. The same recruitment's parent job details cover the reserved-category vacancies, age and source documents (parent route works once published).

Sources: Original PDF pp.6, 12, 15–17; Annexure-A p.30, Annexure-B p.31, Annexure-C pp.32–33. No Fireman PET date, DME date or numerical final cut-off is announced.

SDSC SHAR Light and Heavy Vehicle Driver 'A' — Exact Annexure-I Written Syllabus

Quick route check: Drivers codes 27/28/30 share the OFFICIAL Annexure-I syllabus: Motor Vehicles Act 50 questions, English 15, Arithmetic 15 and General Knowledge 20. Total 100 questions/120 minutes; then a qualifying driving skill test with a universal 60% threshold.

The Driver syllabus is the one group for which the 43-page recruitment advertisement includes a separate topic-by-topic official annexure. It covers LVD 'A' codes 27 and 30 and HVD 'A' code 28. The three codes have different posting and experience rules: code 27: one seat at SDSC SHAR, code 28: seven HVD seats, and code 30: four LVD seats at ADRIN, Secunderabad. Official notification pp.6–9,17–19 and Annexure-I p.34.

Written test: four compulsory sections

Driver CBT subject-weightage pie chart

The above marked table repeats official question counts to support the site's existing interactive chart component; it does not add a sixth paper or another 100 questions. In the examination itself, each correct answer carries +1, each wrong answer incurs −0.25, and an unanswered question carries 0 (p.18).

Annexure-I Part A — Motor Vehicles Act 1988 (50 questions)

The notified syllabus covers various sections of the Act as amended, licensing of drivers, registration of motor vehicles, control of transport vehicles, control of traffic, motor vehicle insurance, offences/penalties/procedures, mandatory traffic signs, accident claims and accident claims tribunals. The paper specifies 50 questions in the aggregate Part A; it does not give a question count to each of these subtopics. This section alone carries half the total written marks.

Annexure-I Part B — Elementary English, Standard VIII (15)

Specified topics are synonyms and antonyms, correct verb usage, and choosing appropriate words and phrases to fill blanks. The source does not announce a separate comprehension passage, essay, descriptive paper or English grammar chapter-wise distribution; do not claim one.

Annexure-I Part C — Elementary Arithmetic, Standard X (15)

Specified topics: addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, percentages, ratio and average. Preparation beyond this list is optional self-practice, not additional notified syllabus.

Annexure-I Part D — General Knowledge (20)

Notified coverage: general knowledge and current affairs, who-is-who, Indian states and capitals, and geography of India. For source-backed current information and revision practice, see the SarkariSapna current affairs directory; it is a general preparation resource, not an official SDSC question bank.

Two separate written qualifying conditions

Both conditions must be met: (1) at least 50% in Part A, i.e. 25 of 50; and (2) at least 50% in Parts B+C+D combined, i.e. 25 of 50. Scoring 70 overall with Part A below 25 is therefore not a qualifying result under the ordinary rule. Where sufficient SC/ST/OBC/ESM candidates are unavailable against notified reserved vacancies, the advertisement permits relaxation of qualifying marks up to 25% to address the shortfall; this is conditional, not a blanket promise to every candidate (pp.17–18).

Practical illustration: Part A 24 and other parts 41 yields 65/100 overall, but fails ordinary Part A qualifying requirement; Part A 26 and other parts 26 satisfies the two written minimums at 52/100 but is not a guarantee of selection. A high aggregate cannot replace a component-wise minimum.

Skill test, written merit and ties

Written performance determines a category-wise 1:5 skill shortlist, with a minimum of 10 candidates subject to the official selection procedure. The Driver skill test is go/no-go and requires at least 60% for every category—no SC/ST/OBC relaxation in this 60% skill requirement. Skill marks do not add to final merit. The final panel follows CBT marks among skill-qualified candidates, with essential academic qualification marks deciding ties (pp.18–19).

Do not confuse licence and experience rules

For all three codes, entire prescribed experience must be after obtaining the valid driving licence; experience certificates must be from Government/semi-Government agencies or registered companies/societies/trusts etc., not individuals; part-time experience is not counted. For HVD, candidates from states/UTs where a public-service badge is not mandatory must satisfy the Andhra Pradesh badge requirement within three months of joining, as described in the notice. Review documentary proof before paying separate post-code fees.

Internal navigation and official source

For related exam records use the Government Exam directory; see SarkariSapna syllabus pages for published syllabus materials. The mock-test library is optional practice, not an SDSC-official or guaranteed Driver mock test. The full parent recruitment lists locations, vacancies, fee refunds and all 24 codes (available when the recruitment is published).

Source: SDSC SHAR/RMT/03/2026, PDF pp.6–10,17–19, Annexure-I p.34. No 2026 Driver CBT or skill-test date is announced.

SDSC SHAR Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS), Post Code 29 — Exam Pattern, 4 Subject Areas and Qualifying Logic

Quick route check: MTS code 29 has a 100-question, 90-minute CBT covering numerical ability, reasoning, general awareness and English. The advertisement does not allocate exact questions per subject and does not prescribe a further skill test.

The MTS position is Matric/SSLC/SSC or equivalent pass; 16 seats are notified across UR 6, OBC 4, SC 3, ST 1 and EWS 2. Unlike Technical, Nurse and Driver posts, this recruitment prescribes written selection only for MTS: it does not notify a follow-up skill test, PET or interview as part of the normal MTS route. Official PDF pp.8,19–20.

Official MTS CBT scheme

The PDF does not specify how the 100 questions are divided across these four subjects. Any table assigning, for example, 25 questions to every subject would be an unsupported invention. Nor does the notification provide a separate topic-by-topic MTS syllabus beyond the four named subject areas.

Precisely notified subject scope and study guidance

Numerical and Mathematical Ability: the official paper names this subject area but publishes no exclusive list of arithmetic chapters or their marks. For optional preparation, revise mathematics skills appropriate to the candidate's Matric/SSC foundation, e.g. basic operations, ratios and percentages, while treating them as study advice rather than official topic weights.

Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving: the subject name is official; no list of puzzle types or topic share is notified. Practice a variety of basic reasoning questions, recording recurring mistakes, without attributing any specific puzzle weightage to ISRO.

General Awareness: the subject is officially included. News revision and static GK can be supported with SarkariSapna current affairs articles; this link is to general editorial preparation, not a notification-defined number of current-affairs questions.

English Language and Comprehension: the area is officially named, but no topic-specific allocation is given. Candidates can practice reading and language use for 10th-pass exams without assuming a fixed grammar-versus-comprehension percentage.

Minimum qualifying standards — not final cut-offs

These are minimum qualifying thresholds, not a predicted merit cut-off. MTS empanelment is limited by category-wise vacancies and actual written scores. No skill marks are added, because no MTS skill test is specified.

Official tie-break order and arithmetic illustration

1. Higher score in Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving breaks a tie in total written marks.
2. If still tied, older candidate receives priority by date of birth.

Score example, not a cut-off forecast: 65 correct, 15 wrong and 20 unanswered yield 65 − (15 × 0.25) = 61.25/100. A 61.25 score above a qualifying minimum does not establish final rank because seat-limited merit is separate.

Preparation workflow based on known facts

A candidate has 90 minutes for all 100 questions combined (average 54 seconds/question if time were allocated equally; this is an arithmetic observation, not an official per-question timer). As a practical method, use a timed practice set, review wrong questions, and prioritise accuracy because the paper deducts 0.25 per wrong answer. For general timed practice, browse SarkariSapna mock tests; the site does not thereby claim that an ISRO MTS-specific mock exists. For updates use the exam directory and published syllabus directory. The same SDSC recruitment page has the 16-seat vertical reservation split and applicable application conditions (once published).

Primary source: PDF pp.8 and 19–20; CBT city provision p.20. MTS exam date, admit-card release and actual category merit cut-offs are not announced.