CFTRI Technician 2026: 13 Trade Codes, 300-Mark Merit Formula, Paper Timers & 30 Solved MCQs

🛠️ 28 posts. 13 trade codes. Three written papers. But only 300 marks count for ranking. A candidate who studies all three papers as if every mark enters the merit list—or who selects a trade using only the combined vacancy total—can waste preparation time before the examination even begins. This CFTRI Technician (1) guide turns Advertisement Rec.02/2026 into trade-choice checks, worked score calculations, a realistic timed practice framework and 30 fully explained questions.

📌 Start from the source: 2026 CFTRI Technician advertisement (PDF) · CSIR-CFTRI regular recruitment notices · official application portal · related SarkariSapna CFTRI Technician recruitment. Exam dates, shortlist criteria and later revisions must be checked on the institute website; sample calculations here are not selection cut-offs or past-paper questions.

⚡ 60-second decision dashboard: what actually affects you?

🗂️ Every trade, every seat: the 13-code map

🔎 What the distribution tells you: TE01 Fitter (6) and TE02 Electronics Mechanic (7) together account for 13 of 28 seats (46.4%). This is a vacancy distribution, not evidence that either trade will be easier to get: applicant volumes and qualifying performance are unknown.

📊 Seat distribution — text chart; one block approximately one post

🧮 Reservation is not addition. Advertisement total: UR 9, EWS 5, SC 4, ST 1 and OBC-NCL 9 = 28. The notification also identifies two ESM and two PwBD reservations within those posts; do not turn 28 into 32 by adding horizontal-reservation seats.

🧷 Eligibility is an AND followed by an OR—not simply “10th + ITI”

Basic condition: SSC/Class 10 or equivalent with Science subjects and a minimum of 55%. Then meet one corresponding-trade alternative: (A) ITI or national/state trade certificate, OR (B) two years of full-time apprenticeship training from a recognised institution, OR (C) three years of work in the relevant trade in the specified government, PSU or autonomous-institution setting. Recognition, exact trade and documents must meet the advertisement.

🎯 Age and pay: ordinary maximum age 28 years as of 18 November 2026, subject to notified relaxations. Pay is 7th CPC Level 2, basic ₹19,900–₹63,200. The advertised approximate ₹37,260 monthly emoluments at Mysuru on the minimum scale include applicable allowances; ₹37,260 is not the starting basic or a promise of net take-home salary.

📮 Two submissions, two clocks: avoid the hard-copy trap

📦 Postal address: Recruitment Section (E-I Section), CSIR-CFTRI, Cheluvamba Mansion (opposite the Rail Museum), Mysuru, Karnataka – 570020. Follow the advertisement for the prescribed signed printout, photograph, self-attested eligibility documents, applicable payment proof, NOC and envelope marking. “Posted before 26 November” and “received by 26 November” are different statements.

💳 Fee: ₹500 for non-exempt applicants; the notification provides exemptions for specified categories, including SC/ST/PwBD/women/eligible ex-servicemen. Confirm your own exemption and evidence before paying. The institute, not any third-party portal, controls subsequent changes.

🧠 The selection funnel: qualify first, rank second

1. Gate 1 — Application screening: eligibility and evidence may be examined; fulfilling minimum requirements does not automatically establish a call to every later stage.
2. Gate 2 — Trade test: corresponding practical trade competence; qualifying stage, not an extra merit-mark paper.
3. Gate 3 — Paper I: Mental Ability, 50 questions and 100 marks in 60 minutes; qualifying; no negative marking.
4. Merit papers — Paper II + Paper III: 150 + 150 = 300 available ranking marks; performance here is decisive after qualifying conditions are met.
5. Verification: original age, qualification, category, trade/apprenticeship/work proofs and other notified documents may be checked before appointment.

⚠️ The institute’s qualifying threshold for the trade test and Paper I is determined/notified separately. A made-up “everyone passes Paper I with X marks” figure has no place in preparation advice.

📊 400 written marks vs 300 merit marks: why most summaries mislead

📉 Maximum-mark composition (one █ = 25 marks)

🥧 Merit-share calculation, not a decorative pie: General Awareness contributes at most 75/300 = 25%; English 75/300 = 25%; concerned trade 150/300 = 50%. Thus half your final merit maximum is trade theory even though Paper III contains only one-third of the 150 written questions.

⏱️ Speed science: three clocks, three strategies

⏳ Worked timing example: If you spend 45 seconds on ten Paper II items, 7.5 of 30 minutes are gone. The remaining 40 items must average about 33.75 seconds. This is why unfocused long deliberation on an uncertain 3-mark question can cost accessible marks elsewhere. Section planning here is a rehearsal method, not a prescribed official attempt order.

➕➖ The +3/−1 score equation and the guessing boundary

For Papers II/III: score = 3 × correct − 1 × wrong, with unattempted questions scored zero. For Paper I: score = 2 × correct and no negative marks. Never apply the Paper I rule to the merit papers.

🎯 Guessing threshold: for a +3/−1 question with zero for blank, the expected score of an answer believed correct with probability p is 3p − (1 − p) = 4p − 1. It turns positive only if p > 25%. This is a mathematical illustration; probabilities are rarely known precisely in an actual test, and confident knowledge beats random speculation.

⚖️ Why ranking can reverse even when Paper I is higher

Applicant B scored 14 more marks in Paper I, yet Applicant A has 8 more counted merit marks. Assuming both meet independently notified qualifying requirements, Paper I cannot be used to add 14 points to B’s final ranking. This comparison does not estimate actual cut-offs, reservation outcomes or tie-break rules.

🔧 Practical preparation by trade: 13 targeted learning tracks

Paper III is based on the relevant advertised trade; these are study themes and illustrative exercises, not a claim that the institute published 13 chapter-by-chapter topic lists or disclosed exact practical tasks.

🧰 Trade-test rehearsal: Build an answer in the order identify tool → state its purpose → follow safe procedure → measure/read → diagnose an error. This is a preparation method. Actual test tasks, pass threshold and station procedures should be taken only from later official notices.

🚫 Old-paper trap: do not borrow the 2025 Technical Assistant pattern

An older CFTRI Technical Assistant (Rec.03/2025) advertisement describes a larger 200-question written paper and a 100-question, 90-minute technical Paper III. That is a different post and advertisement. For 2026 Technician (1), Rec.02/2026, use the 150-question, 150-minute breakdown applicable to this recruitment; old PDF tables and question-bank headlines are not substitutes for the current notification.

📚 For historical comparison only: 2025 CFTRI Technical Assistant advertisement. Use this solely to understand why copying a past scheme can mislead.

🗓️ A 12-day dual-track plan: exam preparation + application completion

💡 Measure progress properly: Keep three separate numbers after each mock—Paper I qualifying score, Paper II marks and Paper III marks. Report final merit practice as Paper II + Paper III; do not mix it with the 400-mark written total.

🧩 30 practice MCQs: answers, reasons and common traps

These are original practice questions teaching the published recruitment structure and relevant baseline skills. They are not official question-paper extracts, previous-year questions or promised 2026 questions. For trade questions, study the ones matching your chosen TE code; all candidates can practise the common recruitment, Mental Ability, English and General Awareness items.

❓ Q01. Which date does the official CFTRI portal give as the last online application day?

• A. 26 Nov 2026
• B. 18 Nov 2026
• C. 17 Oct 2026
• D. 19 Nov 2026

✅ Correct answer: B — 18 Nov 2026

💡 Why: 18 November 2026 at 11:59 PM is the portal closing time. The 26 November deadline concerns receipt of the signed hard copy.

⚠️ Exam trap: Do not treat physical receipt as an online extension.

❓ Q02. What must happen by 26 November 2026 under the notified physical-submission requirement?

• A. The written examination must finish
• B. The trade test must be held
• C. The signed hard-copy packet must reach CFTRI
• D. The admit card must be downloaded

✅ Correct answer: C — The signed hard-copy packet must reach CFTRI

💡 Why: The advertisement states a receipt deadline for the posted online-application printout and required enclosures. Posting on the last date is not equivalent to delivery.

⚠️ Exam trap: Check tracking and delivery, not just dispatch.

❓ Q03. Which minimum Class 10 condition is common across these trade codes?

• A. Pass with Science and at least 55%
• B. Any 10th pass without Science
• C. Only Class 12 with Maths
• D. Only a diploma regardless of Class 10

✅ Correct answer: A — Pass with Science and at least 55%

💡 Why: The published essential-qualification routes begin with SSC/Class 10/equivalent with Science subjects and at least 55% marks.

⚠️ Exam trap: The ITI route does not waive the common 55% base.

❓ Q04. A matching ITI certificate and a matching recognised two-year apprenticeship are described as:

• A. Both compulsory together
• B. Alternative routes after the Class 10 base
• C. Alternatives to Indian citizenship
• D. Proof that any trade code can be chosen

✅ Correct answer: B — Alternative routes after the Class 10 base

💡 Why: The notice uses OR between matching ITI/trade certificate, apprenticeship and a specifically defined three-year government-sector work route.

⚠️ Exam trap: The underlying Class 10 condition is still required.

❓ Q05. How many of the 28 vacancies fall in TE01 Fitter and TE02 Electronics Mechanic together?

• A. 11
• B. 12
• C. 13
• D. 15

✅ Correct answer: C — 13

💡 Why: TE01 has 6 and TE02 has 7. Together 6 + 7 = 13. This does not disclose the number of applicants in either pool.

❓ Q06. The 2 ESM and 2 PwBD reservations in the advertisement mean:

• A. 28 + 4 = 32 posts
• B. These are horizontal reservations within 28
• C. Four additional unreserved posts
• D. The number of trades increases to 17

✅ Correct answer: B — These are horizontal reservations within 28

💡 Why: The PDF explicitly states 28 total posts and identifies 2 ESM plus 2 PwBD reserved posts out of that total.

⚠️ Exam trap: Never add horizontal seats to the advertised total.

❓ Q07. What is the written examination maximum across Papers I, II and III?

• A. 300
• B. 350
• C. 400
• D. 500

✅ Correct answer: C — 400

💡 Why: Paper I carries 100, Paper II 150 and Paper III 150: 100 + 150 + 150 = 400.

❓ Q08. Which two papers determine the 300-mark merit score after qualifying stages?

• A. Paper I alone
• B. Paper I and II
• C. Paper I and III
• D. Paper II and III

✅ Correct answer: D — Paper II and III

💡 Why: Paper II and III contribute 150 each; Paper I is qualifying and not included in the 300-mark merit total.

⚠️ Exam trap: A higher qualifying Paper I score does not automatically increase counted merit.

❓ Q09. How does negative marking work in Paper I (Mental Ability)?

• A. −1 for each wrong answer
• B. −0.25 for each wrong answer
• C. No negative marking
• D. −3 for each wrong answer

✅ Correct answer: C — No negative marking

💡 Why: Paper I awards two marks per correct response and no negative marks for incorrect responses; Paper II and III have a different scheme.

❓ Q10. Under +3 for correct and −1 for wrong, what does 32 right, 10 wrong and 8 blank yield?

• A. 86
• B. 96
• C. 104
• D. 76

✅ Correct answer: A — 86

💡 Why: 32 × 3 − 10 × 1 = 86. Eight blanks score zero; the number of questions remains 50.

❓ Q11. For +3/−1 with blank = 0, what accuracy probability makes a blind-attempt expectation exactly zero?

• A. 10%
• B. 20%
• C. 25%
• D. 33.3%

✅ Correct answer: C — 25%

💡 Why: Expected return = 3p − 1(1 − p) = 4p − 1; zero at p = 0.25. This is mathematics, not an instruction to guess.

❓ Q12. Paper II allows 30 minutes for 50 questions. The uniform average is:

• A. 24 seconds
• B. 36 seconds
• C. 60 seconds
• D. 72 seconds

✅ Correct answer: B — 36 seconds

💡 Why: 30 × 60 / 50 = 36 seconds per question. Actual time distribution need not be uniform.

❓ Q13. A candidate has 90/100 in Paper I, 112/150 in II and 105/150 in III. What is the counted merit maximum-score result?

• A. 307/400
• B. 217/300
• C. 202/300
• D. 90/100

✅ Correct answer: B — 217/300

💡 Why: Assuming qualifying gates are passed, counted merit = 112 + 105 = 217/300; Paper I is excluded.

⚠️ Exam trap: Do not add 90 into merit just because it is part of the written exam.

❓ Q14. Which amount is the starting basic pay at Level 2, not the example total monthly emoluments?

• A. ₹37,260
• B. ₹63,200
• C. ₹19,900
• D. ₹50,000

✅ Correct answer: C — ₹19,900

💡 Why: ₹19,900 is the entry basic in the Level 2 ₹19,900–₹63,200 scale. The quoted approximately ₹37,260 includes estimated admissible allowances at Mysuru HQ.

❓ Q15. If 50 Paper-III questions carry 150 maximum marks, marks per correct answer are:

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

✅ Correct answer: C — 3

💡 Why: 150 divided by 50 gives 3 marks per correct answer, before penalties for incorrect responses.

❓ Q16. Fitter (TE01): a vernier caliper is especially suited to measuring:

• A. Only electric current
• B. External and internal dimensions with its jaws
• C. Moisture content by evaporation
• D. IP packet routing

✅ Correct answer: B — External and internal dimensions with its jaws

💡 Why: A vernier caliper measures dimensions such as outside and inside widths/diameters; correct zero-reading technique matters.

❓ Q17. Electronics Mechanic (TE02): ideal current through a 6 Ω resistor across 12 V is:

• A. 0.5 A
• B. 2 A
• C. 6 A
• D. 72 A

✅ Correct answer: B — 2 A

💡 Why: Ohm’s law: I = V/R = 12/6 = 2 A. This is a basic practice circuit, not an official past-paper item.

❓ Q18. Instrument Mechanic (TE03): an instrument reads 102 units when a trusted standard is 100 units. Indication error is:

• A. −2 units
• B. 0
• C. +2 units
• D. +102 units

✅ Correct answer: C — +2 units

💡 Why: Indication error = indicated value − reference = 102 − 100 = +2 units.

❓ Q19. Lab Assistant (TE04): 10 mL stock made up to a final volume of 100 mL is what dilution of stock?

• A. 2-fold
• B. 5-fold
• C. 10-fold
• D. 100-fold

✅ Correct answer: C — 10-fold

💡 Why: Dilution factor = final volume / aliquot = 100/10 = 10; the stock concentration becomes one-tenth (assuming ideal mixing).

❓ Q20. COPA (TE05): which spreadsheet reference keeps both row and column fixed when copied?

• A. B2
• B. $B$2
• C. B$2
• D. $B2

✅ Correct answer: B — $B$2

💡 Why: In common spreadsheet A1 notation, $B$2 is an absolute reference to both column B and row 2.

❓ Q21. ICT Maintenance (TE06): an IP address works but the same host name fails. Which service should be checked first?

• A. DNS name resolution
• B. Refrigerant charging
• C. Metal thickness
• D. Wood seasoning

✅ Correct answer: A — DNS name resolution

💡 Why: DNS maps names to addresses. A name-only failure makes DNS a useful early diagnostic, although other faults remain possible.

❓ Q22. Refrigeration & AC (TE07): the evaporator in a cooling system primarily:

• A. Rejects heat to the outside
• B. Absorbs heat from the cooled space
• C. Protects mains from short circuit
• D. Measures pipe diameter

✅ Correct answer: B — Absorbs heat from the cooled space

💡 Why: The evaporator absorbs heat as refrigerant evaporates; the condenser rejects heat to its surroundings.

❓ Q23. Electrician (TE08): two ideal 6 Ω resistors in parallel have resistance:

• A. 12 Ω
• B. 6 Ω
• C. 3 Ω
• D. 1 Ω

✅ Correct answer: C — 3 Ω

💡 Why: For equal parallel resistors, equivalent R = 6/2 = 3 Ω; by reciprocal rule 1/R = 1/6 + 1/6.

❓ Q24. Carpenter (TE09): before allowances or waste, area of a 2.0 m by 0.6 m board is:

• A. 0.3 m²
• B. 1.2 m²
• C. 2.6 m²
• D. 12 m²

✅ Correct answer: B — 1.2 m²

💡 Why: Rectangular area = length × width = 2.0 × 0.6 = 1.2 m². Always keep dimensions in consistent units.

❓ Q25. Plumber (TE10): constant flow of 12 litres/min over 3 minutes delivers:

• A. 4 L
• B. 15 L
• C. 36 L
• D. 120 L

✅ Correct answer: C — 36 L

💡 Why: Delivered volume = flow rate × time = 12 × 3 = 36 litres, provided the rate remains constant.

❓ Q26. Sheet Metal Worker (TE11): sheet thickness 0.8 mm equals:

• A. 0.08 m
• B. 0.008 m
• C. 0.0008 m
• D. 0.00008 m

✅ Correct answer: C — 0.0008 m

💡 Why: 1 mm = 0.001 m, hence 0.8 mm = 0.0008 m.

❓ Q27. Turner (TE12): a lathe spindle runs at 600 revolutions/minute. Revolutions per second?

• A. 6
• B. 10
• C. 36
• D. 60

✅ Correct answer: B — 10

💡 Why: Divide rpm by 60 seconds/minute: 600/60 = 10 revolutions per second.

❓ Q28. Welder (TE13): which workshop measure most directly reduces exposure to welding fumes?

• A. Turn off lighting
• B. Local exhaust ventilation / suitable extraction
• C. Remove safety glasses
• D. Stand closer to the fume plume

✅ Correct answer: B — Local exhaust ventilation / suitable extraction

💡 Why: Appropriate local fume extraction reduces airborne exposure at source; correct PPE and process controls are still necessary.

❓ Q29. English Paper II: choose the grammatically correct sentence.

• A. The applications has been received.
• B. The applications have been received.
• C. The applications is received.
• D. The applications have receiving.

✅ Correct answer: B — The applications have been received.

💡 Why: The plural subject “applications” takes the auxiliary “have” in this passive perfect construction.

❓ Q30. What does CSIR stand for in the institute’s official name?

• A. Council of Scientific & Industrial Research
• B. Central Society for Indian Recruitment
• C. Commission for Science and Income Rules
• D. Council of State Industrial Revenue

✅ Correct answer: A — Council of Scientific & Industrial Research

💡 Why: CSIR is the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research; CFTRI is one of its constituent laboratories.

✅ Final candidate checklist: what to check before you click Submit

• The chosen TE trade matches the exact advertised certificate/apprenticeship/qualifying employment route.
• Class 10 Science marks meet the minimum; category, age, NOC and fee claims have documentary support.
• The online submission is complete by 18 November; downloaded printout and signed physical packet are arranged for receipt by 26 November.
• You have separate qualifying and merit practice logs: Paper I is not added to Paper II + Paper III.
• You use Rec.02/2026 Technician test instructions instead of copying an older CFTRI Technical Assistant pattern.
• Actual trade-test dates, call letters, cut-offs and any corrigenda are checked only in official CFTRI updates.

📚 Primary reading: CSIR-CFTRI Technician (1) Advertisement Rec.02/2026 · official recruitment notice board · application portal. For vacancy details and the connected exam lifecycle, visit the SarkariSapna CFTRI Technician 2026 job page.